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Thread: Future I vs. Future II

  1. #1
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    Future I vs. Future II

    What exactly is the difference between Future I and Future II?

    Ie. for the verb essare
    I Future: ego essā́bō
    II Future: ego essā́verō

    How does this differ from future perfect (I will have been), simple future (I will be​) or conditional (I would be)?
    En estos postreros días Dios nos ha hablado por el Hijo, a quien constituyó heredero de todo, y por quien asimismo hizo el universo.

  2. #2
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    Re: Future I vs. Future II

    Greetings!

    Ie. for the verb essare
    I Future: ego essā́bō
    II Future: ego essā́verō
    I imagine the questioner would not have come to this site were he not looking for some constructive pedantry. So I begin by marking his work.
    1 essare n'existe pas. The infinitive is esse.
    2 essebo likewise (ero, eris &c.)
    3 the fut perf. is (regularly) formed from the perf. stem fu-, on the pattern of -o, -is, -it &c.

    Now to the nitty-gritty - there's probably a shorter answer to this, and CapnPrep, who knows everything, will if he looks at this thread advise further.

    A perfective tense implies completion (that's what "perfect-", "done through") means in Latin.

    Hence a "Future Perfect" characterizes a transaction imagined or hypothesized as complete in the future: "Your mum will have finished making supper by the time you (will) finish your homework: that is, your supper will be ready (having-been-prepared) at the precise hour you sit down to eat.

    Normally, in rendering into English, a simple (rather than perfective) tense will do: "When you arrive at the station, we'll come and pick you up" - for the first, strict Latin will require a fut. perf.

    It occurs to me to wonder whether the OP's perplexity arises because he, as a Canadian, will have learned French. Trust the French to get this tangled: the French conditional functions grammatically as a tense, but semantically as a mood.

    I must leave the podium for wiser persons than I.
    Last edited by Scholiast; 9th December 2012 at 2:00 PM. Reason: Repairing punctuation

  3. #3
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    Re: Future I vs. Future II

    Quote Originally Posted by Scholiast View Post
    Greetings!

    I imagine the questioner would not have come to this site were he not looking for some constructive pedantry. So I begin by marking his work.
    1 essare n'existe pas. The infinitive is esse.
    Merci beaucoup, it seems I got such data from an interesting Latin imaginary verb-builder (if said website doesn't recognize a verb it'll conjugate it by relying on standard protocol) - this website is verbix.com.

    Quote Originally Posted by Scholiast View Post
    2 essebo likewise (ero, eris &c.)
    3 the fut perf. is (regularly) formed from the perf. stem fu-, on the pattern of -o, -is, -it &c.
    What I meant to ask was not the difference between essebo and essavero, but the difference between ero and fuero. Pardonnez-moi.

    Quote Originally Posted by Scholiast View Post

    Now to the nitty-gritty - there's probably a shorter answer to this, and CapnPrep, who knows everything, will if he looks at this thread advise further.

    A perfective tense implies completion (that's what "perfect-", "done through") means in Latin.

    Hence a "Future Perfect" characterizes a transaction imagined or hypothesized as complete in the future: "Your mum will have finished making supper by the time you (will) finish your homework: that is, your supper will be ready (having-been-prepared) at the precise hour you sit down to eat.

    Normally, in rendering into English, a simple (rather than perfective) tense will do: "When you arrive at the station, we'll come and pick you up" - for the first, strict Latin will require a fut. perf.
    Thank you for your (rather long) explanation of future perfective - malheureusement, that is one of the few things I did know.

    Of course I probably just confused you (as I did myself) with my stupid machine translation error. What I really mean to ask is what is the difference between ero and fuero.

    Quote Originally Posted by Scholiast View Post

    It occurs to me to wonder whether the OP's perplexity arises because he, as a Canadian, will have learned French. Trust the French to get this tangled: the French conditional functions grammatically as a tense, but semantically as a mood.

    I must leave the podium for wiser persons than I.
    Perhaps, except I do not speak French (neither do roughly eight tenths of the country). I do speak Spanish and Portuguese, não obstante. And English too!

    Thanks again and God bless you.
    En estos postreros días Dios nos ha hablado por el Hijo, a quien constituyó heredero de todo, y por quien asimismo hizo el universo.

  4. #4
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    Re: Future I vs. Future II

    I am sorry, but I have difficulty understanding your question.

    fuero is the future perfect (I will have been) of the irregular verb sum, esse (to be).
    ero is the simple future (I will be​).

    If you know what the future perfect is, what in particular is giving you trouble?

  5. #5
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    Re: Future I vs. Future II

    Hi,
    «ero» means «I will be» («Je serai» in French, «seré» en español, «serei» em português)
    «fuero» means «I will have been» («J’aurai été», «habré sido» «terei sido»)

    There is no connection to the conditional mood/tense in neither French, nor Spanish nor Portuguese.

  6. #6
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    Re: Future I vs. Future II

    Awesome, thank you!

    The page I had looked at didn't label it as "future perfect" but rather, confusingly, "II Future".
    En estos postreros días Dios nos ha hablado por el Hijo, a quien constituyó heredero de todo, y por quien asimismo hizo el universo.

  7. #7
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    Re: Future I vs. Future II

    Greetings once more.

    It may be relevant that German textbooks for Latin learning regularly refer to "Futur I" and "Futur II" for what we call "Future [Simple]" and "Future Perfect" respectively, so this terminology may also therefore be used in other base-languages, or have found its way into English manuals based on them.

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