I'm interested to know and get a more detailed etymology on the creation/origin of the Conditional tense in all neo-Latin languages. It’s a no brainer that Classical Latin did not have this tense, which seems to have originated in Vulgar/Late Latin, my question is… how? Iberian (Spanish, Portuguese, Galician): In theory, these languages seem to have adopted a similar ending to that of their Imperfect Indicative, that is, by using the desinence of the verb “haber/haver” in the imperfect. Imperfect Indicative: Galician: había, habías… Spanish: había, habías… Portuguese: havia, havias... Conditional (Present): Gal: cantaría… Esp: cantaría, cantarías… Por: cantaria, cantarias… This would explain the stress on the –i. Yet according to Wikipedia, the Latin Pluperfect Indicative evolved into a Conditional in Catalan (true or false?); The only way I see that possible is if an –i- was directly inserted to the Pluperfect: cantaveram -> cantaveriam? But I really doubt this, I mean, it’s unlikely to have happened like so without any influence from Spanish/Portuguese or Occitan. Therefore, I’m curious to know if Catalan (or Valencià) created its conditional tense from the imperfect of haver like the rest of the Iberian languages. Occitan: Imperfect Indicative of aver: aviái, aviás,aviá, aviam, aviatz, avián Conditional: cantariái, cantariás… Strangely, Old Occitan had 2 synthetic forms for the conditional. One that resembled that of Spanish (cantaríam, cantaríatz…) and another that looked dangerously close to the Imperfect Subjunctive in modern Spanish and thus similar to the Latin Imperfect Conjunctive (cantéra, cantéras, cantéra, canterám, canterátz) While Venetian seems to have adopted something similar in sound to that of the Iberian ones, without the influence of Italian (since Venetian apparently lost its Preterite, yet its endings don’t come from the Imperfect either): Vèneto: Conditional (Present) -> scoltarìa, te scoltarisi, el scoltarìa, scoltarìsmo, scoltarisi, i scoltarìa. (Along with many dialects spoken in Italy [that don’t share the Italian ending] such as corso, napulitanu, padovano…) Yet this “Iberian” theory would not apply to Romanian: Conditional (Present) -> aş asculta, ai asculta, ar asculta, am asculta, aţi asculta, ar asculta. Nor Italian, which apparently used the Preterite (simple past) form of avere. Passato Remoto: ebbi, avesti, ebbe, avemmo, aveste, ebbero Conditional -> avrei, avresti, avrebbe, avremmo, avreste, avrebbero. But Sardinian (Logudorese) is perhaps the most interesting, since it seems have been “frozen” in time. It might hold the answer to how the conditional was formed and once used as a periphrastic form (which apparently is how it’s still used in Sardinian): Conditzionale = imperfect indicative form of depere (dovere) + Infinitive. Imperfetu Indicativo (depere): dio-dia, dias, diat, diamus, diazes-is, diant. Conditzionale (Presente): Dio caentare, Dias caentare, Diat caentare, Diamus caentare, Diazis caentare, Diant caentare. Can someone confirm, deny or add something useful that might explain how the conditional tense began (or when)?