The periphrastic past perfect is a feature of Catalan that cannot be found in other Romance languages and using the auxiliary anar to express a past looks to me surprising. So I I'd liked to ask these questions : 1. Is this verbal form old ? What time can it be dated back to ? 2. Is it possible to make it out ? How is it that the verb anar with the present infinitive conveys the notion of past ? 3 . Is it right that this periphrastic past ( jo vaig dir ) has currently replaced the simple past perfect ( jo diguí ) ? 4. What's the difference between ha parlat and va parlar ? I wonder if both tenses are currently used. Thanks a lot for any enlightment.