Hello everyone, I've just learned of the genitive of possession. My text uses three types of examples: both possessor and possession are definite, both are indefinite, and the possessor is definite while the possession is indefinite. However, my text does not discuss the possessor-indefinite possession-definite scheme. My text says that for the possessor is definite and the possession is indefinite model, we break the two nouns apart with a preposition. For example, بَيتٌ لِلرَجُلِ for "a house of the man." Would I do the same for the possessor-indefinite possession-definite scheme? For example, if I wanted to say "The house of a man" would it be: أَبَيتُ لِرَجُلٍ ? Thanks.