give <something> to <someone>

Discussion in 'English Only' started by bepleased, Feb 14, 2010.

  1. bepleased Senior Member

    Jinan,China
    Chinese
    Hi panjandrum,

    Thank you very much.

    Whatever tell me correct or not that will give me a chance to touch the string of English.
    ..........................................................................................................
    In your teaching, has led me to a big question:

    "present <someone> with <something> is almost the same as give <something> to <someone>
    present <something> to <someone> is almost the same as give <something> to <someone> "

    That question is on the subject of "give something to someone".
    In it, that means: under giving, there are something which is towards / unto someone ----- and under something, there are someone.

    So, give something to someone ------give [something which is unto / towards someone]
    So, someone (object (i)) is that intended aim which is intended by something, not the subject of the verb 'give'. beause, the thing as it begins to receive from the subject, it has the core or the order / purpose in which it must give itself unto / towards someone.
    That is why someone is object (i).

    Could you tell me the understanding is correct or not ?

    best wishes

    bepleased
     
  2. Natalisha Senior Member

    Russian
    I am giving it(this thing) to --> you. (I is the subject of the sentence, it is a direct object, you is an indirect (prepositional) object)
     
  3. entangledbank

    entangledbank Senior Member

    London
    English - South-East England
    Sorry, bepleased, but this makes very little sense. You ask complicated questions, and then try to give complicated explanations. It would be much easier to help you if you asked short, simple questions.

    Instead of talking about 'intended aim' and 'unto/towards' and 'core' (which I don't understand), talk about simple examples:

    John gave Mary an apple.
    John gave an apple to Mary.
    John presented Mary with an apple.
    John presented an apple to Mary.

    Just learn that these are the two ways we can use 'give', and the two ways we can use 'present' (when it means "give"). Don't try to understand what the word 'to' means. 'To' is a piece of grammar. It allows you to put the person receiving in second place (after the apple in first place). The word 'present' can use 'with', but you are making it much harder for yourself if you try to explain this by the meaning of the word 'with'. These are just grammatical patterns you should memorize and use.
     
  4. bepleased Senior Member

    Jinan,China
    Chinese
    Yes, Natalisha,

    here, "you" is the object of "to", meanwhile I ask from where is the core of intention of "to" that---- "to" shows an intended aim or object towards which an action directed, I want to question from what / who the action derived.

    We know every things have a core or a purpose in it, because when considered as being a human and in fact that the things must have its own purpose can become a perfect things to act for itself.

    Can you help me to provide the instances, and the moment I can not remember such a case, though, I am sure that things do have his own heart. Although, I have countless examples.

    This is the great discovery that the object (i) he is the receiver from the intended aim which is from the object (d) and the preposition "to" he is the code to show this intended aim.

    best wishes and thanks truly

    bepleased
     
  5. Natalisha Senior Member

    Russian
    No, "you" is not the object of "to". "To" indicates to whom the action is directed.

    Let's have a look at these examples.

    I gave a book to you. - is the same as - I gave you a book. (there is no "to" in this sentence, but "you" is the indirect object of the sentence)
    I'm sorry, Bepleased, I don't look at things in the same way as you do, though it may be very interesting.:)
     
  6. Kurious

    Kurious Junior Member

    France
    Does that implies the following deduction or are the two sentences identical ?
    John gave Mary an apple. Mary is emphasized (according to the narrator)
    John gave an apple to Mary. The apple is emphasized
     
  7. LV4-26

    LV4-26 Senior Member

    I don't think so. Unless there's a vocal emphasis on the words in bold, of course.
    It may even work the other way round.

    Example
    A: John gave Mary an apple and Jane a pear.
    B: Sorry, I din't quite get that. Who received the apple?
    A: [John gave the apple to] Mary.
    B: And what did Jane get? (B should really have his ears checked :D)
    A: [He gave Jane] a pear.



    But wait and see what the natives have to say.
     
    Last edited: Feb 24, 2010
  8. Andygc

    Andygc Senior Member

    Devon
    British English
    No, there is no difference in meaning. If you want to emphasise the apple or Mary you would have to rely on verbal stress, not word order.
     
  9. Kurious

    Kurious Junior Member

    France
    Thank you both of you ! :)
     

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