Hello everybody. I would need your help one more time as I have a "theorically" basic question but not "that" basic to me at the moment. Reading a script from a listening dialogue exercise, I read this sentence: Clearly, I must have fallen asleep, because I wasn't feeling very well.... The point is that in a secuence of past situations she is telling, here the meaning of the underlined will be Yo debí haberme quedado dormida (If we would tell the same in Spanish) but literally I`d translate that sentence as Yo debo haberme quedado dormida. My conclusion is that I must have fallen asleep could work equally as He debido quedarme dormido and Yo debí haberme quedado dormido in Spanish as I think I've never seen something like I had to have fallen asleep.. Is that true?, I'm a bit confused about the matter. And of course, Thank you very much in advance.