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Is Ashkenazi from Parth. Ashkanian or * skuza "Scythian" ?

Discussion in 'Etymology, History of languages and Linguistics (EHL)' started by mojobadshah, Jun 3, 2013.

  1. mojobadshah Senior Member

    I see most etymologies on Ashkenazi connect the epyonym to the reconstructed form of Scythian *skuza, but doesn't the Parth. Ashkanian cf. aspa, equine, Afghan seem like the simpler of the solutions?
     
  2. arielipi Senior Member

    Israel
    Hebrew
    are you talking about ashkenazi jews?
     
  3. berndf Moderator

    Geneva
    German (Germany)
    In Biblical Hebrew (Jeremiah 51:27) Ashkenaz is mentioned as a Kingdom believed to be Scythian judging from the context of this Bible passage. But that is really just a conjecture. The medieval use of Ashkenaz meaning Germany is based on this geographical assumption, viz. that Ashkenaz lies in the North (for the perspective of Eretz Israel).
     
  4. Wolverine9 Senior Member

    American English
    The OP appears to be asking why the word Ashkenazi "German (or E. European) Jew" is supposedly derived from *skuza "Scythia" and not from Ashkanian, which was another name for the Parthian empire.
     
  5. berndf Moderator

    Geneva
    German (Germany)
    And that's what I answered.
     
  6. origumi Senior Member

    Hebrew
    Etymology of Ashkenaz won't be full unless explaining also what are Gomer, Riphat, Togarmah (Genesis 10:3, 2 Chronicles 1:6), Ararat, Minni (Jeremiah 51:27). Of those, I think only Ararat is known for sure.

    Adaptation of Ashkenaz to Germany in medieval times is a different issue.
     
  7. berndf Moderator

    Geneva
    German (Germany)
    The connection with Ararat is why people believe Ashkenaz to be a Scythian kingdom.
    Yes indeed. That's what I said:
     
  8. Treaty Senior Member

    Australia
    Persian
    Whatever Ashkenaz was, we should try to find it in a time much earlier than Arsacid dynasty (founded in 250BCE, by Arshak I, a name which was later corrupted to "Ashk"). The facts that there is no mention of powers of 500 BCE in Jeremiah and Genesis and there is no Persian and Greek influence on the languages of these books, suggest that the original texts belonged to before (or early) second temple (600BCE).
     
  9. mojobadshah Senior Member

    Does Gomer equate to Cimmerian who were also Scythians?
     
  10. CitizenEmpty Senior Member

    English & Korean
    I'm kinda worried that the biblical view of geography wouldn't be that accurate.
     

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