Me va a tocar levantarme temprano para ir a clases.

Discussion in 'Spanish-English Grammar / Gramática Español-Inglés' started by habsuze, Aug 24, 2011.

  1. habsuze Senior Member

    Illinois
    USA English
    "Me va a tocar levantarme temprano para ir a clases."

    Hola, Could someone explain the grammar on this sentence? Specifically, Me va (irse - to leave, go away) (ir-to go)

    I understand that it means I am going to have to get up early.... Why isn't it "Voy a ..."
    Secondly I don't understand the use of the two infinitives tocar / levantar used together. I know that just using tocar you could say "Me toca levantarme.... "

    Hope my questions are clear- wasn't sure how to word them. Gracas.
     
  2. BrooklynBoy

    BrooklynBoy Senior Member

    English - Nueva York
    Hope my answer is clear. "Me va a tocar" is another way of saying "Me tocará", ie, the future of "Me toca." The verb is not "irse" but "tocarse", the "ir/va" is to put it in the future.
     
  3. habsuze Senior Member

    Illinois
    USA English
    Okay, I think I got it. What about the infinitives together?
     
  4. duvija

    duvija Senior Member

    Chicago
    Spanish - Uruguay
    Me voy a poder vestir con ropa de verano, porque va a hacer mucho calor.
    Tienes que intentar pintar esa pared ...
    ¡Hay que querer hacer algo como eso!
    Suelo necesitar comer cada dos horas (y por eso estoy gorda)
     
  5. inib

    inib Senior Member

    La Rioja, Spain
    British English
    There's nothing wrong with using two or more infinitives on the trot (as Duvija has just demonstrated). We do it in English too: He's going (1) to have (2) to try (3) to work harder.
     
  6. Wandering JJ

    Wandering JJ Senior Member

    England
    British English
    Hi!

    It struck me reading this that perhaps it was the phrase 'me va a tocar' that was unclear to you rather than the use of 'ir' for the 'near future'; I say this because you didn't translate the first bit of the sentence - also you asked why not 'voy'.

    'Tocar' can mean 'to affect' in some way, like disturb, bother, etc., so the sentence means: 'It's going to affect me getting up early to go to... ' The only difference between this and English is that Spanish uses a second infinitive whereas English often uses a present participle for the second verb in this type of consctruction; you could use a second infinitive in English: 'it going to affect me to get up early... '

    Hope this helps.
     
  7. chicoguapo16 Senior Member

    Madrid, España
    English-United States
    I want to point out that, while Wandering JJ is correct in saying that we don't always use a second infinitive, we would never use a past participle in these cases. I think he/she meant to say that we often use the gerund form of verbs (getting) in place of a second infinitive.
     
  8. chicoguapo16 Senior Member

    Madrid, España
    English-United States
    Oh no, I apologize. I misread Wandering JJ's post. Yes, we use the present participle (same as the gerund form) in these cases. Sorry!
     
  9. Wandering JJ

    Wandering JJ Senior Member

    England
    British English
    No need to apologise chicoguapo!

    For once we have something to confuse the Spanish-speakers: present participle, gerund and gerundive (all identical in appearance), while they just have gerundio!
     
  10. jmx

    jmx Senior Member

    Barcelona
    Spain / incorrect Spanish
    Sorry, no, that's not what it means. The narrow meaning is "to be one's turn to do something" but in the example sentence it means something more general, like 'necessity, obligation':

    Me va a tocar levantarme temprano. -> There's going to be no alternative for me but to wake up early.
     
  11. duvija

    duvija Senior Member

    Chicago
    Spanish - Uruguay
    :D
    C'mon! we know the difference between gerund and present participle 'andando' and 'andante'. Recibiendo/recipiente. Viviendo/viviente.
    And then we screw up:
    cantando/cantante,
    "estando/estante":D
     

Share This Page