Well it's been a long time since I last posted here! It's good to be back I'm currently preparing for a very difficult English examination and I've been making an effort to be attentive even to the smallest details and finest points of grammar as they might be decisive to my overall performance in the exam (I somehow have to trick the examiners into believing that I'm proficient in English and not only conversant in English). But I'm getting off the track, as usual. My question is: I have always noticed the usage, especially in more formal language, of the formula more + adjective even when the adjective has an inflected form for the comparative, as is normally the case with one-syllable adjectives. I was just listening to a report on the BBC website in which the reporter says: " (...) the situation for the Somali government, which was fragile at best, is looking even more grim". Although I was aware of this before, I'd never really given it much thought and just stuck to the inflected forms whenever applicable, but now I'd like to hear from native speaker (or non-native speakers, for that matter) what they consider to be the reason why someone chooses to use more plus the adjective instead of the -er declension. I supposed it's a stylistic choice, but does it make the speaker sound more formal? Is it possible to do this to all adjectives which are usually inflected in every-day language? Any input will be appreciated, even if it's just to say how you feel about this usage. Macunaíma P.S.: I'm aware that when comparing two attributes of the same thing, using more is the rule, as in: "she's more tall than attractive" (nevermind if it doesn't make sense). My question is about comparisons between different entities.