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No me viste / veías / has visto

Discussion in 'Spanish-English Grammar / Gramática Español-Inglés' started by timlee43, Dec 12, 2012.

  1. timlee43 Junior Member

    Los Angeles
    English-Canada/US
    Saludos:

    Can someone tell me if any of the following attempts is correct for this:
    Didn't you see me signaling you to be quiet?

    ¿No me viste dándote una seña para que te callaras? (or) para que dejaras de hablar? (in case the first is too rude)
    ¿No me veías dándote una seña para que ...
    ¿No me has visto dándote una seña para que ...


    I guess I'm asking about verb tense as much as the correctness of the sentence as a whole.
    Many thanks.
     
  2. manxo Senior Member

    Pontevedra
    Galego y Castellano de España
    Depende del contexto:
    ¿No me viste haciéndote señas para que te callaras? // ¿No viste que te hacía señas ... ? Acción puntual y rematada en el pasado.
    ¿No me veías haciéndote señas para que te callaras? // ¿No veías que te hacía señas ... ? Acción durativa en el pasado.
     
  3. micafe

    micafe Senior Member

    United States
    Spanish - Colombia
    The expression is "hacer señas", not "dar señas".

    "No me viste.." is for an action that took place in the past only once and was completed immediately.

    "No me veías..." is for an action that took place several times in the past for a certain period of time.

    "No me has visto...." in this context, is very frequently used in Spain in place of the preterite.

    Of course, manxo's sentences are correct and that's the reason why I didn't write them.
     
  4. timlee43 Junior Member

    Los Angeles
    English-Canada/US
    Thanks to manxo and micafe for your responses. All is clear now and I appreciate your help.
     

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