objeto indirecto v. objeto de una preposición

Discussion in 'Spanish-English Grammar / Gramática Español-Inglés' started by lilyofhearts, Sep 25, 2007.

  1. lilyofhearts

    lilyofhearts Junior Member

    France / Canada / USA
    United States / English
    Hi! I'm having trouble understanding what the difference in meaning is between:

    Hizo la comida a sus hijos.
    and
    Hizo la comida para sus hijos.

    Compró un abrigo a su marido.
    and
    Compró un abrigo para su marido.

    I understand that "a sus hijos" means that he made it "for them," but what does it mean with "para sus hijos" or "para su marido?"
    Thanks!
     
  2. Outsider Senior Member

    Portuguese (Portugal)
    I would say the reverse: it's "para sus hijos" that means "for her children".

    Hizo la comida a sus hijos.
    She made her children the meal.
    (I'm not sure if this literal translation works in English.) The difference in meaning is slim, but for syntactic reasons grammarians only consider it an indirect object when the preposition is a, or when there's no preposition.
     
  3. lilyofhearts

    lilyofhearts Junior Member

    France / Canada / USA
    United States / English
    Thanks for your help! :)
     

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