I've seen two theories about how the word Persian developed into the word Pharisee. The Pharisees were Zoroastrianized Jews. According to Mary Boyce the the epyonym Pharisee is derived from the Aramaic Pārsāh/*Parsāh “Persian” or “Persianiser.” According to another source the Hebrew Farooshiym "Persian" developed into Gk. Pharisee. Do these theories compliment eachother? "p" does change to "f" in Arabic, but does "p" also change to "f" in Aramaic or Hebrew?