Portuguese inflected infinitive - origins

Discussion in 'Etymology, History of languages and Linguistics (EHL)' started by Beachxhair, Aug 27, 2013.

  1. Beachxhair

    Beachxhair Senior Member

    Manchester UK
    English-England
    I've searched for a thread on this and can't find one, so I'm going to start this one as I find it an interesting topic :D

    I've read about the theories that it developed from the Latin Imperfect subjunctive (out of a re-analysis of the subjunctive as an infinitive, when the Latin complementizer was dropped in certain clauses) and that it developed in a process of analogy with other verbal paradigms where the pronoun is attached to the verb.

    Could anyone shed any light on either of these theories? Which one do you personally think seems more probable and why?

    Thanks for your replies
     
  2. Nino83 Senior Member

    Italian
    The first hypotesis could be true for this reason.
    Latin imperfect subjunctive fell into disuse because of the loss of final "m", "t" and "s" (the latter only in Italian and Romanian).
    amā́rem amā́rēs amā́ret amārḗmus amārḗtis amā́rent became amare amare(s) amare amaremo(s) amarete(s) amaren(t), that was too much similar to the infinitive amare. This tense was replaced by pluperfect subjunctive (amassi, aimasse, amase, amasse).

    This form is pretty similar to Portuguese personal infinitive amar amares amar amarmos amardes amarem*. So, it could be.

    The other Romance languages didn't develop a personal infinitive so this process, if it were true, regards only Portuguese language.

    I don't know if this process is plausible.

    Ciao

    * the final "e" was lost in infinitive tense, the short latin vowel "u" became "o", the short latin vowel "i" became "e", the "t" had a lenition and became "d" and "em" is pronunced "e~j", a nasal sound.
     
    Last edited: Aug 28, 2013
  3. Quiviscumque

    Quiviscumque Moderator

    Ciudad del paraíso
    Spanish-Spain
  4. Beachxhair

    Beachxhair Senior Member

    Manchester UK
    English-England
  5. Beachxhair

    Beachxhair Senior Member

    Manchester UK
    English-England
    I've been reading about the Principles and parameters framework in relation to the development of the inflected infinitive. An analysis of the syntax of Portuguese is offered based on the idea that in inflected infinitival clauses the functional category Inflection (or Agreement in inflection, assuming Pollock's split IP hypothesis, that the category Inflection is split into Inflectional phrase and Tense phrase).

    The idea is that 'the functional category Inflection can assign nominative case to the subject only if it is itself assigned case' in inflected infinitival clauses. The reasoning behind this is that in null subject languages, the functional category Agreement is nominal and nature and therefore must be case marked.

    Does anyone know why Agreement is nominal in pro-drop languages? Why must agreement be nominal and case marked? If anyone could explain or give me a link to an explanation, thank you :)
     
  6. XiaoRoel

    XiaoRoel Senior Member

    Vigo (Galiza)
    galego, español
    Para mí es evidente que el futuro de subjuntivo procedente del presente de irreal latino, el llamado "imperfecto de subjuntivo" es el eje de la aparición de estos infinitivos conjugados en gallego medieval (mejor en protogallego). Hablar de portugués medieval es un error de perspectiva, y mas hablar de "luso", en referencia a la Lusitania, cuando nuestra lengua nace en los límites de la antigua Gallaecia (el primitivo Portugal de Afonso Enriques el el conventus bracarensis de la antigua Gallaecia) ya que Portugal sólo existe desde el s. XII (y el portugués diferenciado del gallego no es anterior al s. XVI). En gallego incluso se registran gerundios conjugados (por lo menos en una zona de las Rías Baixas).
    Aunque es normal en las oraciones finales de para + infinitivo, muy abundantes, el uso más extendido es con la preposición a, y así a + infinitivo forma una oración adverbial modal equivalente al gerundio del español en valor semántico.
    Últimamente se4 ha puesto de relieve como motivo de la nominalización del futuro de subjuntivo y la "verbalización" del nomen actionis que toma desinencias personales, un posible substrato celta (lenguas que también poseen, en otras condiciones, infinitivos personales.
    Los filólogos portugueses por nacionalismo evitan investigar el origen gallego de su lengua y esto distorsiona los hechos antiguos (y los modernos).
    Con el retraimiento de la población de entre Duero y miño durante un sigloi y medio, durante los ss. VIII y IX la lengua se constituye en el territorio de la actual Galicia: los dialectos en Galicia se separan por isoglosas verticales, las variedades portuguesas por horizontales, lo que demuestra que el foco natal de la lengua es el conventus lucensis y el norte de la Bracarensis (sur de la Galicia actual al norte del Miño).
    Habría que investigar en la documentación latina gallega de esos siglos el uso del "imperfecto" de subjuntivo latino, especialmente con valor final y tras verbos de movimiento.
    El problema es difícil de resolver, pero la opción del subjuntivo latino parece la más plausible.
    Investigaré este fin de semana para aportar casuística de territorio gallego en latín de los ss. VIII y IX que quizás, según la tesis de Wright, podría representar ya el romance gallego.
    Portugal y el portugués son hechos tardíos y no deberían ser la base de los estudios diacrónicos, sobre todo en épocas tan lejanas como los ss. VIII y IX cuando sólo estaban aseguradas las tierras al norte del Miño.
     
  7. Cossue Junior Member

    Galiza
    Galician & Spanish
    Non tou de acordo! (I disagree :) Just an example: Clarinda de Azevedo Maia. História do Galego-Português (1986). Coimbra: INIC. A most remarkable book that studies written Galician-Portuguese in its geographical and temporal origin without any chauvinism...

    In reference to the subject, de Azevedo (p. 755), while not wanting to take a position, points out the fact that a inflected infinitive also existed in 15th-century Napolitan, or today in Hungarian, and that gerund can also have personal endings in some Galician and Portuguese speeches, so suggesting that the apparition of an inflected infinitive could have been an spontaneous development.
     

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