I'm asking this question because I feel like I'm correct in saying that it depends on your pronunciation, even though several people have argued with me that even when I pronounce aren't it only has one syllable. I believe that it has two. I was teaching English and we came to a part in a lesson about syllables in contracted English negatives. The book listed can't, don't, weren't, and aren't as one syllable words (I only have a problem with the classification of the bold contractions) and doesn't, didn't, isn't, and wasn't as two syllable words. I can imagine in my head a person from England pronouncing aren't and weren't as roughly arnt and wernt. However, the book was supposed to be focussing on what we can essentially call a standard American English. In my speech, aren't is pronounced 'ar-@nt and weren't is 'w@r-@nt (where the @ is representing carrot/schwa and the italicized t is representing an unreleased/glottal t - the r is an American rhotic r). I have to be blunt, I see two vowel sounds separated by a liquid...to me that means two separate syllables. Any thoughts?