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Tener + la "a" personal

Discussion in 'Spanish-English Grammar / Gramática Español-Inglés' started by Diego Navarrico, Feb 6, 2010.

  1. Diego Navarrico Junior Member

    Texas, USA
    American English
    Normalmente no se usa la "a" personal depués de la palabra "tener" a diferencia de verbos transitivos.

    No veo a mi hermano.
    No tengo un hermano.

    ¿Pero es correcto decir "no tengo a nadie" para expresar la idea de ser desamparado?

    Ayudita si posible.
     
  2. squirrellin Senior Member

    Spanish-Argentina
    Sí, en español es posible decir eso ya que se pueden usar dobles negativos (No/nadie) y expresa eso justamente.
     
  3. Diego Navarrico Junior Member

    Texas, USA
    American English
    Gracias.
    Me sonaba bien pero queria confirmación.
     
  4. PACOALADROQUE Senior Member

    El Puerto de Santa María (CÁDIZ-ESPAÑA)
    ESPAÑOL (CARTAGENA-ESPAÑA)
    De acuerdo con Squirrellin

    Saludos
     
  5. hosec Senior Member

    españa (ab)
    español
    Hola:

    Copio del DPD:
    Con el verbo tener, el complemento directo de persona, si es indeterminado, se construye sin preposición: Tienen dos hijos; Tiene una tía actriz;

    Podemos decir "Tengo padre y madre", y se considerará algo indeterminado,m no individualizado, algo así como la idea de padre y la idea de madre; frente a "Tengo a mi padre y a mi madre en casa", expresión en que la indeterminación queda deshecha, porque ahora son un padre y una madre concretos: los míos, en este caso.

    Espero ser de ayuda. Salud.
     
  6. XiaoRoel

    XiaoRoel Senior Member

    Vigo (Galiza)
    galego, español
    Hosec ya te ha dado la respuesta. Te lo explico de otra manera: Mientras el OD de persona sea indefinido o en su sentido más general (lo que en vasco se llama mugagabe) no se usa el morfema a de OD, pero cuando lo determinas con el artículo derminado o con un adjetivo posesivo, ya puedes usar el morfema a de OD de persona.
     
  7. Diego Navarrico Junior Member

    Texas, USA
    American English
    Gracias Hosec y XiaoRoel.

    No sé porque venía pensando yo que las reglas del uso de la "a" personal con tener eran diferentes de las de otros verbos. Me queda bien claro ahora. Tu ejemplo Hosec me sonaba de los años que vivía en Navarra.

    Saludos a todos!
     
  8. cas2319 New Member

    English
    Hola,

    I am trying to discover why the personal "a" cannot be used after the verb tener to identify a person as a direct object.. I know that the personal a is not used after tener unless you are describing where a person is, but I don't know why.

    Here's the problem I was given:

    Considera la oración tengo un hermano enfermo. Si el objeto directo refiere a una persona, por qué no aparece la preposición a? Observe que si aparece, de hecho, la preposición, la oración cambia de estructura sintáctica y, por consiguiente, de ignificado. Cómo explicaría este fenómeno?

    Would the solution simply be that the personal "a" is not used with tener to refer to a direct object unless it is describing location? Or is there more to it than that?

    Gracias!
     
  9. gringuitoloco Senior Member

    Florida
    American (awesome) English
    The personal "a" is not normally used after the verb tener.

    Using the personal "a" after tener suggests emotional closeness. It is also used when the verb tener is used to mean "to hold" or "to give birth." It can also be used to emphasize a specific proper noun. It can also be used to indicate influence, such as "having someone do something."
     
    Last edited: Mar 29, 2012
  10. Aviador

    Aviador Senior Member

    Santiago de Chile (a veces)
    Castellano de Chile
    In my opinion, the preposition can certainly be used to introduce a person as direct object in a sentence like tengo un hermano enfermo. There is a difference though between using it and not using it, but that difference is very subtle and not easy to discern, even for a native speaker.
    Tengo un hermano enfermo means that the brother suffers a chronic illness or defect of some sort, that is, he has a permanent condition. On the other hand, tengo a un hermano enfermo means that the brother is only temporary ill.
    Lets wait for other opinions.
     
  11. SevenDays Senior Member

    Spanish
    Generally speaking, we don't use the preposition "a" when the direct object is preceded by un artículo indeterminado (un, una, unos, unas). There are exceptions, but let's not get caught up in details. Your example uses "un," and therefore we don't use "a": Tengo un hermano enfermo.

    The "cambio de estructura sintáctica" and of "significado" that your problem alludes to can be explained as follows. In Spanish, the indirect object is always preceded by the prepositions "a" and "para." If we add "a" to your example, then, syntactically, we turn "a un hermano" into an indirect object, the recipient of the verb action. What that means is that we've now turned "enfermo" into a direct object, because the verb tener ("tengo") is transitive and needs a DO. (More specifically, the adjective "enfermo" has been nominalized, turned into a noun, to function as a direct object.) The semantic implication of all this is that the meaning changes. Whereas tengo un hermano enfermo means my brother is sick ("I have a brother sick"), tengo a un hermano enfermo means I made my brother sick ("I've got my brother sick") that is, the sickness of my brother is the consequence of my doing.
    Cheers
     
  12. cas2319 New Member

    English
    Hmm okay. I'm not sure I understand--these responses don't all seem to complement each other. Aviador, I understand what you are saying, but I don't understand why and I'm not sure how to explain it. SevenDays, I appreciate all the explanation you give. However, I'm still a little confused. Why does simply putting "a" in front of "un hermano" changes it to an indirect object? This isn't the case in a sentence like "veo a mi hermana bonita," and ver is also a transitive verb. Perhaps I don't understand how "enfermo" can become a direct object since it's an adjective.
     
  13. SevenDays Senior Member

    Spanish
    Hello

    The problem you were given speaks of a change in syntactic structure (and of a subsequent change in meaning) if we add the preposition "a" in "tengo a un hermano enfermo." The question becomes, what is that syntactic change? One possible answer (and there may be other answers; I don't know what's in the mind of whoever thought of this problem) is that the direct object "un hermano" becomes the indirect object "a un hermano," because indirect objects are always introduced by the prepositions "a" or "para" (and for some people, the indirect object is only introduced by "a"). (Remember, we are starting from the premise set by your problem that there is a syntactic change, so "un hermano" can no longer be the direct object.) Having established that "a un hermano" is the indirect object (because we've added the preposition "a"), we are still confronted with the fact that "tengo" is a transitive verb, and a transitive verbs needs a direct object. In that case, the only element left that can play the role of direct object is the adjective "enfermo." What happens now is that the adjective "enfermo" becomes nominalized (it turns, for all practical purposes, into a noun) by its syntactic function in the sentence. The meaning now can be interpreted as I've gotten my brother sick/I made my brother sick.
    Again, that's one way of looking at the syntactic change alluded by your problem.
    Cheers
     
  14. cas2319 New Member

    English
    Ok, yes, I completely understand what you're saying now. Thank you very much!
     

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