In the Urdu, Hindi: Indic F-words thread it has been suggested that the vast majority of Hindi speakers use an f in place of ph, e.g. phuul (flower) is pronounced as fuul. In Urdu, there is the English word "fool" as in "April fool banaayaa aur unko Ghussah aayaa..". Some Urdu speaking people might even use the Arabic "fuul" to mean beans (phalii, not falii) but phuul remains phuul. I wonder if there is a similar situation for j as in jalebii >> zalebii (?). Does this phenomenon exist? If it does, can forum members provide any examples please. If it does n't, then there does not seem to be any rhyme or reason behind ph's transformation to f (a non-Indic sound) while j >>z (another non-Indic sound) is not going through the same conversion process. Any thoughts?