I opened up Saheeh al Bukhaaree just for fun and came across this:
قَالَ هَذَا الْقَوْلَ مِنْكُمْ أَحَدٌ قَطُّ قَبْلَهُ قُلْتُ لاَ قَالَ فَهَلْ كَانَ مِنْ آبَائِهِ مِنْ مَلِكٍ قُلْتُ لاَ قَالَ فَأَشْرَافُ النَّاسِ يَتَّبِعُونَهُ أَمْ ضُعَفَاؤُهُمْ فَقُلْتُ بَلْ ضُعَفَاؤُهُمْ قَالَ أَيَزِيدُونَ أَمْ يَنْقُصُونَ قُلْتُ بَلْ يَزِيدُونَ
Why did he reply with "بل ضعفاؤهم" when "ضعفاؤهم" alone would have sufficed? Does بل add anything here?
I don't think you would normally say "بل زيد." when replying to "أزيد جاء أم عمرو؟".
One a side note, there should have been a همزة الاستفهام before أشراف, but that is probably omitted due to a mistake by a scribe. It is present before يزيدون though.
قَالَ هَذَا الْقَوْلَ مِنْكُمْ أَحَدٌ قَطُّ قَبْلَهُ قُلْتُ لاَ قَالَ فَهَلْ كَانَ مِنْ آبَائِهِ مِنْ مَلِكٍ قُلْتُ لاَ قَالَ فَأَشْرَافُ النَّاسِ يَتَّبِعُونَهُ أَمْ ضُعَفَاؤُهُمْ فَقُلْتُ بَلْ ضُعَفَاؤُهُمْ قَالَ أَيَزِيدُونَ أَمْ يَنْقُصُونَ قُلْتُ بَلْ يَزِيدُونَ
Why did he reply with "بل ضعفاؤهم" when "ضعفاؤهم" alone would have sufficed? Does بل add anything here?
I don't think you would normally say "بل زيد." when replying to "أزيد جاء أم عمرو؟".
One a side note, there should have been a همزة الاستفهام before أشراف, but that is probably omitted due to a mistake by a scribe. It is present before يزيدون though.