بَيْنَهَا وَبَيْنَ حَمِيمٍ آنٍ

גולם

Senior Member
English - American
Hi,

Why is the preposition بين repeated in

بَيْنَهَا وَبَيْنَ حَمِيمٍ آنٍ

(which I got from a thread recently posted)?
 
  • Can't be sure of the reason but I believe it's heavier to pronounce. In the Quran at least, when بين is attached to a pronoun first it's repeated before the other word like in these verses:

    وَجَعَلُوا بَيْنَهُ وَبَيْنَ الجِنَّةِ نَسَبًا
    وَجَعَلْنَا بَيْنَهُمْ وَبَيْنَ القُرَى الَّتِي بَارَكْنَا فِيهَا
    وَحِيلَ بَيْنَهُمْ وَبَيْنَ مَا يَشْتَهُونَ
    فَكَفَى بِاللَّهِ شَهِيدًا بَيْنَنَا وَبَيْنَكُمْ


    But when it's between two nouns it's not repeated:

    وَاعْلَمُوا أَنَّ اللَّهَ يَحُولُ بَيْنَ الْمَرْءِ وَقَلبِهِ
    وَالسَّحَابِ الْمُسَخَّرِ بَيْنَ السَّمَاءِ وَالأَرْضِ
     
    In the Quran at least, when بين is attached to a pronoun first it's repeated before the other word
    Actually, I’ve noticed that even in dialects.

    My guess, but I can’t be sure as I did not look it up, it might have to do with the grammatical case. The pronoun is مجرور so it can neither be ضمير الرفع هو nor ضمير النصب إياه.

    I understand that there is no consensus about العطف على الضمير المجرور بحرف الجر, but this is مجرور بالإضافة, and up to my knowledge there are no Classical examples that allow it - unless there is something I don’t know of course.
     
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