جزاك الله خيرًا

  • Actually some people do. Personally when I use this expression, which I don't often, I say it like this : jazaka'llaahu khayran (to male) jazaki'llahu khayran (to female). Maybe because it's not a colloquial expression after all, so I pronounce it correctly.
    And I'm not the only one in this.
     
    cherine said:
    Maybe because it's not a colloquial expression after all, so I pronounce it correctly.
    And I'm not the only one in this.
    Yes I agree Cherine,

    One might indeed use this expression in spoken language in some specific contexts (formal way to express gratitude, especially when discussing religious matters...). I guess it could be seen as a kind of (quasi) code switching between any variety of colloquial Arabic and MSA.
    Yet, each dialect has of course a more common way to say jazaka'llaahu khayran. So we often say in Moroccan Arabic for example : (A)llah yjaaziik bikhiir , rabbi ykhalliik or baarak' (A)llahu fiik... while in Tunisian colloquial, I hear people say: y3ayshek in the same context. And if I'm not mistaken, in Egyptian Arabic, you usually say: rabbina ykhalliik among other phrases.
     
    Mery_Dian said:
    And if I'm not mistaken, in Egyptian Arabic, you usually say: rabbina ykhalliik among other phrases.
    Correct :)
    We -not just in Egypt- tend to use different ways of "praying God" for the person who did us good, as a way of thanking that person.
    In Egypt there's ربنا يخلليك - ربنا يبارك لك - ربنا يكرمك .....
     
    cherine said:
    In Egypt there's ربنا يخلليك - ربنا يبارك لك - ربنا يكرمك .....

    الله ينوّر عليـك ;)

    (yet another equivalent expression in Egyptian colloquial)
     
    Thanks for all the interesting posts people.

    The thing is - I was trying to ask what the point of adding a "u" to "Jazaakallah" was - ON ITS OWN. I myself also say "Jazaakallahu khayr" - but that's only if I do add the word "khayr(an)". If I just say "Jazaakallah" on it's own, then I don't add a "u".

    :)

    What about you guys? Do you add a "u" even if you say "Jazaakallah" on it's own?
     
    I don't think I would say it on its own (جزاك الله خيرًا is a fixed expression), but if I did, I would indeed drop the "u".
     
    It's جز followed by alif maqsoora. This alif maqsoora changes into a normal alif when not at the end of a word, as in جزاك الله خيرا. Otherwise, it would have been جزى.

    Here's an example from the hadith:
    ‬وأنتم معشرَ الأنصار،‮ ‬فجزاكم الله أطيب الجزاء
     
    Last edited:
    Thank you very much) In my dictionary is wrtten that this verb is used in this meaning with preposition ب, but here is no, just خيرا, why?
     
    Last edited:
    Thank you very much) In my dictionary is wrtten that this verb is used in this meaning with preposition ب, but here is no, just خيرا, why?
    The باء is optional, so is على. In Classical Arabic it does not replace المفعول به الثاني, it is used to denote what the reward is for, not who it is for (المفعول الأول) nor what it is (المفعول الثاني). For example:
    وَجَزَاهُم بِمَا صَبَرُوا جَنَّةً وَحَرِيرًا - سورة الإنسان

    Admittedly though, in many dialects the باء + الاسم المجرور replace المفعول به الثاني, and this sometimes affects how the native speakers use MSA, so you might find it used in both ways in MSA.

    Is it possible for the last word to be mafool mutlaq?
    No. It does not fit the definition of المفعول المطلق as خيرا does not emphasize the verb nor express its intensity, type, or number.

    It does however fit the definition of المفعول به. It is the thing that was given as reward.
    Oh, interesting. I had thought that خيرًا was an adverb - like 'bi-chayr' - (reward you 'well'). But if it's an object, would it mean ''reward you for the good you did''
    No. Good here is neither adverbial nor an adjective, it’s a noun meaning affluence, favour from God, wealth, fortune…etc. As an object it would refer to what you are rewarded with: may God reward you with خير.
     
    Could خيرا be taken to be the نعت of a مفعول مطلق محذوف?

    جزاك الله جزاءً خيرًا
     
    Could خيرا be taken to be the نعت of a مفعول مطلق محذوف?

    جزاك الله جزاءً خيرًا
    What about the other the second object as Abbe pointed out?

    If you really must have حذف وتقدير, then مفعول به محذوف makes more sense than مفعول مطلق محذوف. Perhaps something like: جزاك الله شيئا خيرا من هذا with the red representing what is omitted. At least natives might understand this.

    Yes, that makes more sense than making it mafool bih.
    Is it that hard to accept that خير could be used as a noun with a specific meaning? Look up dictionaries, you would find it.

    Most importantly, language is what natives understand, and I doubt that any native would understand anything other than a مفعول به in this case.
     
    Do we have any other instances of the verb جَزَى يَجْزِيْ being used as متعدي إلى مفعولين?
     
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