صلح عليه أمر الدنيا والآخرة

brustad

Member
English - American
السلام عليكم

ما معنى صلح عليه أمر الدنيا والآخرة؟

وجدت هذه الجملة في حديث للنبي صلى الله عليه وسلم. و هل اللام في صلح مضمومة؟

شكراً
 
  • Mina Rady

    Member
    Arabic
    "أَعُوذُ بِنُورِ وَجْهِك الّذِي أَشْرَقَتْ لَهُ الظّلُمَاتُ وَصَلُحَ عَلَيْهِ أَمْرُ الدّنْيَا وَالْآخِرَةِ مِنْ أَنْ تُنْزِلَ بِي غَضَبَك ، أَوْ يَحِلّ عَلَيّ سُخْطُكَ" .
    It means it became easier and more merciful on him from the anger of Allah now and on the judgement day.
    Yes it's madmuuma, وَصَلُحَ is فعل ماض مبني علي الفتح ومضموم ما قبل الأخر

    We could also wait for a Mussulman to confirm the answer :)
     

    Mina Rady

    Member
    Arabic
    Thanks! What does صَلُحَ mean though? "It was correct"?
    It depends on the context. It may mean "Fix" or "Correct".
    However, in this sentence, it means became easier and more merciful.
    For example,
    1- يصلح العامل العطل. It means here "Fix" (the present form of صلح)------ Translation of the sentence= The worker fixes the damage
    2- يصلح المعلم اخطاء التلاميذ( means here "correct") (Also the present form)------ Translation of the sentence = the teacher corrects students' mistakes
     

    brustad

    Member
    English - American
    Mina: I believe you are using ص ل ح from baab al-if'aal.
    In this hadith it is clearly being used from thulathi mujarrad.
     

    mrs. miyagi

    Banned
    english-USA
    Brustad: Could you please explain why it can’t be from baab al-if3aal? I don’t think it’s clear at all.
     

    analeeh

    Senior Member
    English - UK
    Brustad: Could you please explain why it can’t be from baab al-if3aal? I don’t think it’s clear at all.
    Those verbs have a past tense formed on أفعل, so it would be أصلح.

    I actually think that mina is using the taf3iil form (صلّح) in her examples using 'repair'. But I'm with her that in this verse it's obviously صلُح (or صلَح).

    Having looked at the story as a whole, it seems to me that the whole line means: I seek protection in the light of Your face, which makes [even] darkness shine, and in which the affairs of both this world and the next are better/easier, from... Because unless I'm missing something the h in صلح عليه has to refer back to the same thing as the h in له, which makes a comparative reading for صلُح من meaningless, so then من has to be the complement of اعوذ. But I might be missing something.
     

    Mahaodeh

    Senior Member
    Arabic, PA and IA.
    صَلَحَ or صَلُحَ (both are correct).
    Assuming the first one has a fat7a on the middle letter not a shadda (not clear on my screen)
    which makes a comparative reading for صلُح من meaningless, so then من has to be the complement of اعوذ.
    ; are you sure they are both correct? I'm not quite confident.

    Because unless I'm missing something the h in صلح عليه has to refer back to the same thing as the h in له
    No, you are not missing something, they do refer to the same thing.
    I do agree with your translation, you understood it as I did. I'm not quite sure I understand your reason though (other than the part I just agreed with).

    Maybe my mind works in a different way, but I would say that the reason that it is definitely not أفعل يُفعل افعالا is that there is no hamza here! That should be a clear indication I would imagine, but another reason is that أصلح is a transitive verb and there is no مفعول به here. It couldn't be صلّح يصلّح تصليحا because the meaning simply doesn't work, and also because there is no object for the transitive verb.
     
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    analeeh

    Senior Member
    English - UK
    No, you are not missing something, they do refer to the same thing.
    I do agree with your translation, you understood it as I did. I'm not quite sure I understand your reason though (other than the part I just agreed with).

    Maybe my mind works in a different way, but I would say that the reason that it is definitely not أفعل يُفعل افعالا is that there is no hamza here! That should be a clear indication I would imagine, but another reason is that أصلح is a transitive verb and there is no مفعول به here. It couldn't be صلّح يصلّح تصليحا because the meaning simply doesn't work, and also because there is no object for the transitive verb.
    I agree that the meaning also wouldn't work - but it's also just manifestly, in form, not an 2af3al - I mean, the clue's in the name, right? It would have to have the shape 2af3al, and even without 7arakaat the word could only plausibly be fa3ula/fa3ala/fa3ila or fa33ala. Obviously it is in fact fa3ula for the reasons you gave (and this was my automatic reading). All I was saying that 2af3al is ruled out before you even begin working out the meaning (assuming you don't know the verb) because... it isn't an 2af3al. If it was present, of course, yuf3ilu would be a possible reading, but I was confused by the argument that 2af3al was even a possibility because in the past you can tell even without 7arakaat that it's not an 2af3al.
     
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