هذه البنت

lgjudge

New Member
English
السلام عليكم

Could someone explain why we say a "a" at the end of "al-bint" in احب هذه البنت? I mean, the object of the verb is هذه, not البنت. By the way, I am trying to say "I love this girl."

Thank you so much!
 
  • Ibn Nacer

    Senior Member
    French - France
    وعليكم السلام

    Yes I think you are right, هذه is the object (maf'uul bihi) and the word البنت is badal (of maf'uul bihi هذه) so it must be mansuub (in the accusative case).

    See :

    - Quranic Grammar - Apposition
     
    Last edited:

    Pussykat

    New Member
    English-USA
    I remember reading somewhere that البنت would be a نعت or عطف بيان for هذه. Could someone verify this?
     

    Mina Rady

    Member
    Arabic
    وعليكم السلام

    Yes I think you are right, هذه is the object (maf'uul bihi) and the word البنت is badal (of maf'uul bihi هذه) so it must be mansuub (in the accusative case).

    See :

    - Quranic Grammar - Apposition
    As ibn nacer mentioned, "هذه" Mansuuba as it's the object and mostly what comes after demonstratives, in Arabic, is something called " Badal motabeq" " بدل مطابق" and the "Badal" has the exact same Ta4keel of the demonstrative which is, in this case, "هذه" so "البنت" must be mansuuba
     

    Mina Rady

    Member
    Arabic
    How can al-bint, which means "the girl", be a na'at for anything? :confused:
    It's not na'at. Don't confuse yourself with a thing that even Arab grammar scientists have debates about it. The correct and most popular answer is that Al-bit is "Badal Motabeq" as I mentioned in my previous comment. نعت and عطف بيان are two debatable answers.
     

    brustad

    Member
    English - American
    Got it. I had no idea Arab grammarians had debates about this topic! By the way, is there really a difference between atf bayan and na't (نَعْت)?
     

    Mina Rady

    Member
    Arabic
    Got it. I had no idea Arab grammarians had debates about this topic! By the way, is there really a difference between atf bayan and na't (نَعْت)?
    Yup, Arab grammarians have debates about many topics actually. You can find the different opinions of grammarians concerning this topic in the book " معاني النحو" by Dr. Fadel Saleh Alsamerai.

    For your question, Yeah, there is a huge difference between them, and I think that you mixed up نعت with بدل مطابق. As they are totally two different things. However, as I already mentioned, some grammarians believe that every بدل could be عطف بيان and vice versa. Yet, بدل is the most common answer.
     

    Sun-Shine

    Senior Member
    Arabic (Egypt)
    How can al-bint, which means "the girl", be a na'at for anything? :confused:
    If a word with الـ comes after demonstratives and it's مُشْتَقّ (active participle, passive participle,...) then it would be an adjective "نعت". As البنت is not مشتق then it's badal.

    Don't confuse yourself with a thing that even Arab grammar scientists have debates about it.
    I agree.
     

    brustad

    Member
    English - American
    Yeah, na't is not a mushtaqq. That's why I thought it could not be a na't: it doesn't contain a pronoun. Mushtaqqs all contain a pronoun.
     
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