استخدام الماضي أبلغ لأن فيه دلالة على تحقق الوقوعHi,
In the prayer بِسْمِ اللّٰهِ، اَللّٰهُمَّ جَنِّبْنَا الشَّيْطَانَ وَجَنِّبِ الشَّيْطَانَ مَارَزَقْتَنَا
why is the verb رزقتنا in the past? Why not ترزقنا?
بِسْمِ اللّٰهِ، اَللّٰهُمَّ جَنِّبْنَا الشَّيْطَانَ وَجَنِّبِ الشَّيْطَانَ مَا ترزقنا
أنا أعتقد أنها لتحقق الوقوع وليس للتفاؤل كما يقول الموقعللتفاؤل? Does that mean "for optimism"? If so, how is ما رزقتنا more optimistic than ما ترزقنا?
اللهم جنبنا الشيطان وجنب الشيطان ما رزقتنا
اللهم جنبنا الشيطان وجنب الشيطان ما ترزقنا
أنا أعتقد أنها لتحقق الوقوع وليس للتفاؤل كما يقول الموقع
But رزقتني has not been completed, has it?Yes, which is why the ماضي is usually referred to as the 'perfect' tense in English and other languages (i.e. the action has been completed).
Why it's not?But رزقتني has not been completed, has it?
But رزقتني has not been completed, has it?
Yes, this is the gnomic aspect, which exists in Greek, and also in Persian, where it also uses the simple past tense.That's true, but it's used in Arabic to imply certainty or eternity (as has been mentioned above and on many previous threads), which is why it is used in prayers.