يعرف المجرمون بسيماهم فيؤخذ

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𒍑 𒉺𒋼𒋛 𒄑𒆵𒆠𒆤 𒉆 𒅗

Member
Turkish
Hi

The Holy Quran says

يُعْرَفُ الْمُجْرِمُونَ بِسِيمَاهُمْ فَيُؤْخَذُ بِالنَّوَاصِي وَالْأَقْدَامِ (41)
فَبِأَيِّ آلَاءِ رَبِّكُمَا تُكَذِّبَانِ (42)
هَٰذِهِ جَهَنَّمُ الَّتِي يُكَذِّبُ بِهَا الْمُجْرِمُونَ (43)
يَطُوفُونَ بَيْنَهَا وَبَيْنَ حَمِيمٍ آنٍ (44)

Why is the verb فَيُؤْخَذُ in the singular but the verb يَطُوفُونَ is plural? I guess because the verb close to يؤخذ is يُعْرَفُ and it is singular. I am right?
 
    • No, it's because يؤخذ here is used intransitively so there is no object for it.
     
    How can أَخَذَ يَأْخُذُ be anything but transitive (متعدي)? It means 'to take', doesn't it?
     
    Maybe the way I expressed it isn't technically correct. What I meant was that it's transitive but that doesn't mean it has to have an explicit object each time it's used. I suppose grammarians would say that there is a ضمير مستتر تقديره هو acting as the نائب الفاعل.
     
    It is also explained that the definiteness of النواصي والأقدام or specifically the أل article is a subtitute of a pronoun that is مضاف إليه so the it can be read as فيُؤخذ بنواصيهم وأقدامهم.
     
    أخذ is transitive but since its in the passive form it needs a نائب عن الفاعل and not an object. The jar and the majror are نائب عن الفاعل
     
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