يوم امس

eac

Senior Member
USA, English
واكدت ان العمل على انشاء هذه المنطقة سينتهي مع نهاية يوم امس.
Obviously امس means 'yesterday.' But in this sentence, it is used with the future tense. Can somebody please help me out and translate the last two words for me? I'm sure the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thanks!
 
  • elroy

    Imperfect Mod
    US English/Palestinian Arabic bilingual
    Last week, my friend told me that she would have sent the e-mail by yesterday.

    In the above sentence, I do not mean that my friend meant that she would have sent the e-mail a day before last week (i.e. a day before she said she would, which would be completely illogical), but rather that she would have sent it by the actual yesterday - a day before today. That is, she meant she would have sent it within six days. "Yesterday" here is not referring to the words of the speaker but to the words of the reporter.

    A translation of your sentence would be: "She confirmed that work on the development of this region would be complete by the end of (the day) yesterday."
     

    eac

    Senior Member
    USA, English
    Perhaps I've misunderstood the use of the future tense in Arabic all this time. If I understand you now, it works differently from the future tense in English.

    (1) My friend said that he will arrive on Friday.
    (2) My friend said that he would arrive on Friday.
    (3) قال صديقي إنه سيصل يوم الجمعة

    In English, (1) is not correct if Friday has already passed. We would need to say (2). If Friday has not yet passed, both (1) and (2) are correct. Are you saying that in MSA, (3) is correct in either case?

    P.S. I'm not aligning the Arabic text to the right so that it comes under the English sentences. Hope that's OK.
     

    elroy

    Imperfect Mod
    US English/Palestinian Arabic bilingual
    Indeed, (3) would be used in either case, bearing in mind that because the sentence is ambiguous context would need to indicate which is meant.

    P. S. Not aligning the Arabic text to the right is completely acceptable, and in fact preferred, in this case.
     

    cherine

    Moderator
    Arabic (Egypt).
    I'd like to add a little thing here : the future tense in this Arabic sentence is more of "the future of the past" (=le conditionnel en français et en espagnol).
    I hope this clarifies it a little more.
     

    Thomas F. O'Gara

    Senior Member
    English USA
    You need to remember that generally speaking Arabic verbs don't express Tense (i.e., past, present, future), but Aspect (completed or incomplete). The actual time period of the verb will depend on the context.

    The mailing had not yet taken place at the time that the friend did the telling, so therefore it was incomplete in terms of the main verb. The "sh-" prefix, denoting the future in general, emphasizes that the mailing would take place after the telling.

    It's not that easy to be clear about this. Quite a few languages concentrate on aspect as opposed to tense in their verb formations.
     
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