After learning the phrase "after all" from dictionaries, I concluded that:
If all is emphasized, then it's used before a statement:
-After all I'm not an organized person.
-After all he came.
If after is emphasized, then it's used following a statement, which has a different meaning:
-I'm not an organized person after all.
-He came after all.
Am I correct?
I recognize two meanings, based on where the phrase is. At the start of these sentences it means "For this reason:", while at the end it means "which is not what I expected". However in all four sentences, I give identical emphasis to the words "after" and "all".
But there is a clear pause after the sentence-starting phrase "After all", and it needs a comma in writing. "After all" is not in the same phrase as the rest of the sentence. Not when it has this meaning.
I'm not an organized person after all" -> in contrast – the after is emphasised
I recognize this speech pattern, and it is common to use it in this sentence, even though I do not. Perhaps this is a regional speech difference.
I can think of one situation where I use this pattern: announcing the solution to a puzzle, when it was an
overlooked solution:
She: Did you find your glasses?
He: Yes, finally. They were in my locker
after all.
She: That's where I
told you they would be!
He: Yes, you did. Next time I'll pay more attention.