'a and a

AquaMarine'seye

New Member
SYR-Arabic
Hi all,
I want to know if there any rule or base in English language, that says if we but (‘) above latter ( a )=’a that the pronunciation of it could be as in the word Father ,
and if we did’nt the pronunciation of (a) could be as in the word lake.
- If I was wrong ,is there any base that explains what I mentioned .

I would really appreciate it if you correct any other mistakes .
thanx
 
  • cropje_jnr

    Senior Member
    English - Australia
    No, if I have understood your question correctly. Apostrophes do not affect the pronunciation of words in English.

    The open 'A' in lake is because of the 'E' at the end - this is a pronunciation rule (e.g. cake, gate, made, safe, etc.). 'Made' is a good example, if you consider the difference in pronunciation between 'mad' and 'made'.
     

    se16teddy

    Senior Member
    English - England
    Aquamarine, there is very little consistency in the pronunciation / spelling of English words, especially the vowels. This is a source of great frustration, I am sure, to those learning English as a second language, as well as to native speakers learning to read and write.

    One reason for this is that whereas there is, roughly speaking, a standard orthography, there is no universally accepted standard pronunciation of the language - different people from different places and different backgrounds pronounce the vowels in different ways.

    One spelling rule that we do learn at school, and which applies to many monosyllables, is:
    - -e at the end makes the a say /eɪ/. This explains the pronunciation of lack / lake, mat / mate, tap / tape etc.
    - -e at the end makes the i say /aɪ/. This explains the pronunciation of pin/pine, din/dine, tip/type, if/life etc.
     
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