a majority in the workforce vs. a majority of the workforce

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PureLand

Senior Member
Chinese
1. Women are now a majority in the workforce.
2. women are now a majority of the workforce.

What's the difference in meaning between 1 and 2? Thank you :)
 
  • reno33

    Senior Member
    English - USA
    I would say: both are possible and both mean the same thing. However, most of the time I have seen this structure in print, the preferred proposition has been /of/
     

    PureLand

    Senior Member
    Chinese
    I would say: both are possible and both mean the same thing. However, most of the time I have seen this structure in print, the preferred proposition has been /of/
    Got it! Thank you for your valuable answer, Reno33 :D
     

    Edinburgher

    Senior Member
    German/English bilingual
    Well, 2 simply means there are more women than men in the workforce. If that's all you want it to mean, I agree with Reno that "of" is what you should use for this.

    If you use 1, this may carry implications that go beyond the mere fact.
    For example, they might become a force to be reckoned with, and if their interests differ from those of men, then men might find themselves at a disadvantage!
     

    PureLand

    Senior Member
    Chinese
    Well, 2 simply means there are more women than men in the workforce. If that's all you want it to mean, I agree with Reno that "of" is what you should use for this.

    If you use 1, this may carry implications that go beyond the mere fact.
    For example, they might become a force to be reckoned with, and if their interests differ from those of men, then men might find themselves at a disadvantage!
    That's very clear, I see! Thank you so much for your detailed explanation, Edinburgher :D
     
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