A or The or Nothing at all?

duqianqianqdsd

New Member
Chinese
I just read the phrase like this:

Contracts are enforceable, in general, unless extent of intoxication at time contract made was so great that intoxicated party did not understand terms or nature of contract—then contract is voidable at option of one intoxicated if s/he returns items under contract.

The nouns in bold are neither led by an "a" or a "the". Is this grammatically correct? Thank you.
 
  • natkretep

    Moderato con anima (English Only)
    English (Singapore/UK), basic Chinese
    This looks like something in an abbreviated style - in other words not normal usage.
     

    boozer

    Senior Member
    Bulgarian
    Contracts are enforceable, in general, unless the extent of intoxication at the time the contract was? made was so great, that the intoxicated party did not understand the terms or nature of the contract—then the contract is voidable at the option of the one intoxicated if s/he returns the items purchased/acquired? under the contract.
    If this were a grammar exercise and I had to insert definite/indefinite articles, I would go like this.

    But, as Nat says, this is a clipped style and is not grammatically incorrect, although it may certainly be seen as somewhat lacking :)

    Why don't they just say "Don't buy stuff when you're drunk!", I wonder :)
     

    Harry Batt

    Senior Member
    USA English
    I think the phrase would survive without the articles. It makes the point unambiguous that if one party was drunk at the time the contract was executed [signed by both parties] the contract might then be voided by the intoxicated party. It does not say that the contract is void; only voidable at one party's option.
     
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