a portion of <the Scriptures> was given

NewAmerica

Senior Member
Mandarin
Does "the Scriptures" here refer to the Koran?


Thanks in advance

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To convey the relentlessness with which unbelievers are vilified in the text of the Koran, I provide a long compilation of quotations below, in order of their appearance in the text. <........>:
<..................................>
"<...............>. . . . Consider those to whom a portion of the Scriptures was given. They believe in idols and false gods and say of the infidels: These are better guided than the believers'" (4:50-51).

-Sam Harris' The End of Faith
 
  • Thomas Tompion

    Senior Member
    English - England
    Jimbo Disco may well be right, but the large number of sources quoted (NAB, NJD, MM, etc.), all different translations of the Koran and the Bible, made me hesitate.

    Maybe Jimbo has some insider knowledge on this.
     

    Uncle Jack

    Senior Member
    British English
    I would have thought it wasn't the Koran, but other holy writings recognised by Muslims and acknowledged in the Koran, such as the Torah and Tanakh.

    It should be clear from reading the Koran (which I admit I have not) whether it ever refers to itself or whether it refers to other scriptures outside of itself. In the Christian New Testament, 'scripture' (which I understand is a translation of the the Greek word 'writings') almost always refers to the Tanakh, with one exception (2 Peter 3:16 where it appears to refer to Paul's epistles, explicitly mentioned earlier in the verse).
     

    sound shift

    Senior Member
    English - England
    I think the message being put across here is:
    "The Scriptures" = The Koran
    "A portion of the Scriptures" = The holy books of certain monotheistic religions that pre-date Islam, such as Judaism and Chrstianity. The word "portion" is used to show that Muslims agree with some of the content of those books.
     
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