a put or call option for shares

kanojo88

Member
Slovene
Hello,

Is the following underlined expression correct:

A put or call option for the majority of shares, applicable in the following two years.

I am writing a short article about two shipping companies merging together, with company B getting a 30% percent of the company A's shares. Company B can sell these shares or buy new shares to become the majority shareholder. I am sorry if I am not making myself clear, please feel free to ask any questions :)
 
  • Kirill V.

    Senior Member
    Russian
    If I understand your context, I think you better separate the two options. E.g.
    A put option for the 30% stock and a call option for another X % of shares (the number has to be specified in the agreement, I suppose, say21%) are excersisable within two years following the date of the agreement.
     
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