I know that the following sentence is correct:
"Call the boy whose boss praised, do not call the boy whose father praised."
But how come it could be grammatically correct? Shouldn't there be a object pronoun (or sth else) to denote "the boy" after the verb "praised"? Yes, we can understand the sentence without it, but can you tell me how the sentence can be understandable without an objective pronoun (or sth else) after the verbs.
Many thanks in advance.
(Please do not take any notice of logical errors regarding the context, if there is any error of this kind. I gave this example just to examine the structure.)