a simple question

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8702373

Member
farsi
dear all
which of the "selling sth at much more price" or "selling sth at many more prices" is correct? I do not know whether "price" is a countable or uncountable noun because, in the Longman dictionary, it is mentioned that price is countable an uncountable?
 
  • lingobingo

    Senior Member
    English - England
    Both are wrong. It’s not even clear what you mean.

    You sell something at a particular price / at a high or low price / at a price higher or lower than another price.

    Price is countable in this use, which is why it can be modified by the indefinite article (a = one).
     

    Hermione Golightly

    Senior Member
    British English
    Please give us a sentence or two. If price is being used in a general way is it ' uncountable' grammatically. It can't be used with the indefinite article 'a'.

    The price of houses is rising.
    House prices are very high these days.
     

    8702373

    Member
    farsi
    this is what I want to write about
    "the genetically modifying seed companies sell their products at a much higher price than the regular ones."
     

    lingobingo

    Senior Member
    English - England
    That’s a countable use of the noun price (by calling it a price, you’re counting how many prices you mean – in this case just one). And when countable, it can also be used in the plural: They sell at much higher prices elsewhere.

    It can also be used uncountably (as the abstract concept of price); for example, in a statement such as:
    Price is the most important factor when choosing which brand to buy.
     

    8702373

    Member
    farsi
    Thank you again. but why do you use "much" for "prices" which is countable? I think "many" is correct and it should be substituted for "much"?
     
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