# acceleration as the passengers

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#### LQZ

##### Senior Member
Anyone can feel weightless by falling. During the zero-gravity portion of the flight, the plane flies toward the ground at the same free-falling speed and acceleration as the passengers. ---taken from the NYT
Dear all,

Merry Christmas!

Can I think of the blue part as "at acceleration speed because of passengers" ? Thanks in advance.

LQZ

• #### cuchuflete

##### Senior Member
Hello LQZ,

No, there is no causality implied, so no "because".

#### LQZ

##### Senior Member
Hello LQZ,

No, there is no causality implied, so no "because".
chchuflete, I have no idea, could you explain more to me?

#### cuchuflete

##### Senior Member
Sure, LQZ.

1) Don't complicate it!
2) the plane flies toward the ground at the same free-falling speed and acceleration as the passengers.= (1) The speed of the plane is the same as the free-falling speed of the passengers. and (2) the acceleration of the plane is the same as the acceleration of the passengers.

That is why the passengers feel weightless.

#### LQZ

##### Senior Member
Sure, LQZ.

1) Don't complicate it!
2) the plane flies toward the ground at the same free-falling speed and acceleration as the passengers.= (1) The speed of the plane is the same as the free-falling speed of the passengers. and (2) the acceleration of the plane is the same as the acceleration of the passengers.

That is why the passengers feel weightless.
Thank you, cuchuflete, I've got the meaning of the quote, but I am still confused about the as. Could you tell me its meaning?

#### LQZ

##### Senior Member
the plane flies toward the ground at the same free-falling speed and acceleration as the passengers.
= the plane flies toward the ground at the same free-falling speed and acceleration as the passengers felt/ did.

AM I right?

#### cuchuflete

##### Senior Member
as the passengers felt/ did

Yes. You are right.

#### LQZ

##### Senior Member
as the passengers felt/ did

Yes. You are right.
cuchuflete, thank you.

Sorry, I have one more question.

Why can the verb of subordinate clause be droped? It is very tricky for a non-native speaker, like me, to understand.

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