Accents in indicative present - esquiar, actuar

DarcX

New Member
English - American
I've noticed that in some verbs, such as "esquiar" and "actuar," the indicative present conjugations add an accent on the vowel before the ending of the verb: Esquío, esquías
Actúo, actúas

Are these cases entirely irregular, or is there something there that indicates that an accent is needed in the indicative present?
 
  • macame

    Senior Member
    Spanish & Galician
    It has nothing to do with the verbal time. The accent is because the vowels form a hiatus (they sound in different syllables).
    b) Las palabras con hiato formado por una vocal cerrada tónica y una vocal abierta átona, o por una vocal abierta átona y una cerrada tónica, siempre llevan tilde sobre la vocal cerrada, con independencia de que lo exijan o no las reglas generales de acentuación: armonía, grúa, insinúe, dúo, río, hematíe, ld, cda, rz, fcho, cafna, egsmo, r. La presencia de una hache intercalada no exime de la obligación de tildar la vocal tónica del hiato: búho, ahíto, prohíbe.

    Diccionario panhispánico de dudas ©2005
    Real Academia Española © Todos los derechos reservados
     

    Wandering JJ

    Senior Member
    British English
    In Spanish, when you get a strong vowel (a,e,o) combined with a weak vowel (i,u) the result is a diphthong. A diphthong is treated as one syllable for stress (tonic accent) purposes, so, if you had no written accent (tilde), the stress on the words you suggest would be on the first sillable esquio, actuo. In order to put it where it should be, you use a tilde: actúo, etc.
     

    macame

    Senior Member
    Spanish & Galician
    In Spanish, when you get a strong vowel (a,e,o) combined with a weak vowel (i,u) the result is a diphthong.
    Whenever the closed vowel is not tonic.
    If the closed vowel is tonic we have a hiatus.
    Es-quí-o: (closed tonic vowel + open vowel = hiatus = two different syllables.) The graphic accent goes always on the closed vowel, even if it is not needed according to the general rules of accentuation.
    Es-quió: (closed vowel + open vowel = diphthong = same syllable.) The graphic accent goes always on the open vowel, when needed according to the general rules of accentuation. In this case the graphic accent is needed because the word is oxytonic and ends with vowel.

    Diphthongs:
    Closed vowel + open vowel or the other way round. Graphic accent goes on the open vowel when needed according to the general rules of accentuation. Huésped, superfluo.
    Two different closed vowel. Graphic accent goes on the second vowel when needed according to the general rules of accentuation. Ciudad, veintiún.

    Hiatus:
    Closed tonic vowel + open vowel or the other way round. Graphic accent goes always on the closed vowel, even if not needed according to the general rules of accentuation. Baúl, laúd, reír, oír.
    Two different open vowels or two equal vowels. Graphic accent goes where needed according to the general rules of accentuation. Anchoa, héroe, albahaca, creer.
     

    Wandering JJ

    Senior Member
    British English
    Macame, superb explanation. However, I was trying to keep it simple so that DarcX would have a better chance of understanding.
     

    jose-carlos

    Senior Member
    Spain - Spanish
    I've noticed that in some verbs, such as "esquiar" and "actuar," the indicative present conjugations add an accent on the vowel before the ending of the verb: Esquío, esquías
    Actúo, actúas

    Are these cases entirely irregular, or is there something there that indicates that an accent is needed in the indicative present?
    I try to explain it in another way:
    when you write "esquio" there are 3 ways to read it, depending on what vowel has the strongest stress:
    "esquio" -> (doesn't exist) and it would be writen as it and you read it with 2 sylab. "ES-quio"
    "esquío" -> indicative (it is not because it is indicative, but because of the sound). You read it with 3 sylab "es-QUI-o"
    "esquió" -> past. You read with 2 sylab and the stress in the "o": "es-quiO".
    The reason have been explained about what happens when you find 2 vowels together and one of them is "i" or "u".
     

    FromPA

    Senior Member
    USA English
    I've noticed that in some verbs, such as "esquiar" and "actuar," the indicative present conjugations add an accent on the vowel before the ending of the verb: Esquío, esquías
    Actúo, actúas

    Are these cases entirely irregular, or is there something there that indicates that an accent is needed in the indicative present?
    The simple explanation is that the accents are needed because that's how the words are pronounced. Accents are used to show when accentuation does not follow the general rules, so in that sense, you could say that all words with accents are irregular (with respect to the rules of accentuation).
     

    James2000

    Senior Member
    English - South Africa
    I've noticed that in some verbs, such as "esquiar" and "actuar," the indicative present conjugations add an accent on the vowel before the ending of the verb: Esquío, esquías
    Actúo, actúas

    Are these cases entirely irregular, or is there something there that indicates that an accent is needed in the indicative present?
    The answers given are useful in explaining accentuation rules, but I don't think they answer the question of whether this change is due to the verbs being irregular verbs, and the answer would be of interest to me too.

    That is, do these verbs count as irregular verbs since the final vowel sound (in 'actuar' for example) changes from [ua], which would be a diphthong (correct me if I'm wrong, but that seems to be what the rule says), to [úa], which would be a hiatus.

    I don't think there is any rule that says that this conversion from diphthong to hiatus should happen, and there are counter-examples, so I think verbs in which the diphthong->hiatus conversion happens are just irregular:


    Regular:

    anunc[ia]r -> anunc[io] rather than anunc[ío]
    aind[ia]rse -> me aind[io] rather than me aind[ío] (an obscure example for sure)
    aguar -> ag[uo] (another obscure example)


    Irregular:

    concept[ua]r -> concept[úo]
    contin[ua]r -> contin[úo]
    punt[ua]r -> punt[úo]
    fluct[ua]r -> fluct[úo]

    Opinions?
     

    Peterdg

    Senior Member
    Dutch - Belgium
    I'm afraid I will, once again, not make myself particularly popular with most of my Spanish speaking friends, but here we go again.

    Graphical accentuation has nothing to do anymore with hiatos or diphthongs. All Spanish natives have been taught it this way; unfortunately, it's wrong. Certainly after the spelling reform of 1999, hiatos and diphthongs do not play any role anymore in the graphical accentuation rules. Unfortunately, the RAE continues to use the terminology in its spelling rules, adding to the confusion. I don't know how they formulate it in the new "Ortografía..." that was published in 2010; however, in the DPD online, they still refer to diphthongs and hiatos. (more precisely: for the accentuation rules, some hiatos have to be considered as diphthongs and vice versa; this is an hallucinating way to say that the opposition hiato/diphthong is irrelevant in the accentuation rules)

    Spanish natives have been taught that, in a combination of a weak vowel and a strong vowel, it is a diphthong unless it carries an accent on the weak vowel. This is wrong.

    Spanish natives have also been taught that in the combination of a weak vowel and a strong vowel, it is only a hiato if the weak vowel carries the accent. This is also wrong. E.g. "viaje" is a hiato: "vi-aje", although the accent falls on the strong vowel (Esbozo, 1.4.6b).

    Furthermore, there will be many Spanish natives that will claim they pronounce that word as a diphthong for the mere fact that it does not carry an accent. This is the world turned upside down.

    The reasons why the hiato/diphthong opposition has been removed from the accentuation rules are threefold: 1) it has never been consistent anyway, 2) it does not matter for the interpretation if something is a diphthong or a hiato (there is one exception I know of: see below in the note) and 3) the pronunciation of a certain word as a diphthong or a hiato depends from person to person, from region to region.

    The graphical accent is now only used to indicate where the stress falls on a word when it is pronounced.

    Now, let's go to the examples:

    Actuar: actúo; actúo: "úo" is a hiato: true. But so is the "ua" combination in "actuar": "ac-tu-ar"; nevertheless, "actuar" has never carried an accent mark. Same for "continuar". You see, "ua" is a hiato and no accent mark around in "actuar". Also, it's a weak vowel + strong vowel combination, with the stress on the strong vowel, and still it is a hiato.

    Averiguar: averiguo: the stress falls on the "i". The "uo" is a diphthong and so is the "ua" combination in "averiguar": "a-ve-ri-guar". But once again, hiato or diphthong: it does not matter for the accentuation.

    As a conclusion: if you stay thinking of accentuation rules in terms of hiatos and diphthongs, you make life difficult and you'll end up frustrated.

    Note:

    1)
    One exception I know of where the opposition hiato/diphtong gives rise to interpretation:

    pie: 1st person singular of the indefinido of "piar": pronounced as a hiato: "[pi-e]"
    pie: foot: pronounced as a diphtong "[pye]"

    2)
    Another widespread misunderstanding is that the combination "ui" is a diphthong unless it carries an accent mark (so to say to "break" the diphthong"). This is also not true: "concluido": no accent mark and nevertheless, the "ui" combination is a hiato (Esbozo, 1.4.11f)
     
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    Quique Alfaro

    Senior Member
    castellano
    Actuar: actúo; actúo: "úo" is a hiato: true. But so is the "ua" combination in "actuar": "ac-tu-ar"; nevertheless, "actuar" has never carried an accent mark. Same for "continuar". You see, "ua" is a hiato and no accent mark around in "actuar". Also, it's a weak vowel + strong vowel combination, with the stress on the strong vowel, and still it is a hiato.


    2)
    Another widespread misunderstanding is that the combination "ui" is a diphthong unless it carries an accent mark (so to say to "break" the diphthong"). This is also not true: "concluido": no accent mark and nevertheless, the "ui" combination is a hiato (Esbozo, 1.4.11f)
    Hola:

    No estoy de acuerdo. El encuentro de vocales ua en continuar no es un hiato, es un diptongo.


    Si estoy de acuerdo en que concluido (de acuerdo a como lo pronunciamos acá) debería ir con acento. Para la acentuación del encuentro de dos vocales débiles hay reglas particulares, (que a mí me parecen totalmente ilógicas) pero bueno... que le va uno a hacer.

    Yo pronuncio huir y oír, las dos con dos sílabas (hiato) pero la primera no se acentúa y la segunda sí. Por eso digo que esa regla adicional para el encuentro de vocales débiles no es muy lógica.
     
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    Quique Alfaro

    Senior Member
    castellano
    Hola:

    El caso de actuar y de continuar es idéntico. En ninguno de los dos hay hiato. actuar tiene dos sílabas y continuar tres. Quienquiera diga que ua en actuar es un hiato, así fuera el mismísimo Esbozo, mete la pata hasta la verija (la ingle). Quede claro que no estamos hablando de ciertas formas conjugadas que se pronuncian con hiato ac-tú-o y llevan acento
     

    Peterdg

    Senior Member
    Dutch - Belgium
    Hola:

    El caso de actuar y de continuar es idéntico. En ninguno de los dos hay hiato. actuar tiene dos sílabas y continuar tres. Quienquiera diga que ua en actuar es un hiato, así fuera el mismísimo Esbozo, mete la pata hasta la verija (la ingle). Quede claro que no estamos hablando de ciertas formas conjugadas que se pronuncian con hiato ac-tú-o y llevan acento
    Es una excelentísima ilustración por qué han eliminado la oposición hiato/diptongo de las reglas de acentuación. Tú dices que es diptongo y los celérrimos y doctos fonólogos de la RAE dicen que es hiato. ¿Quién tiene razón? Pues para escribir la palabra, no tiene ninguna importancia, como Dios manda.
     
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    Quique Alfaro

    Senior Member
    castellano
    Es una excelentísima ilustración por qué han eliminado la oposición hiato/diptongo de las reglas de acentuación.
    Te aseguro Peter que no era esto lo que objetaba, puede muy bien ser así.

    No quiero seguir hackeando este hilo con una discusión paralela. Pero creo que la cuestión del hiato de actuar merece una discusión en SE. Voy a abrir un hilo al respecto, estás invitado.
     

    Agró

    Senior Member
    Spanish-Navarre
    Abundando (y confirmando) lo que dice Quique Alfaro, copio parcialmente un epígrafe de la Nueva gramática de la lengua española, Fonética y fonología, Asociación de Academias de la Lengua Española, Espasa, 2011.

    "8.11g En la morfología verbal se generan alternancias entre diptongo e hiato en los verbos vocálicos de diptongo variable, como sucede en la forma de presente actúo [ak.'tu.o] frente al infinitivo actuar [ak.'twar]; en desvías [dez.'βi.az] frente a desviaremos [dez.βja.'re.mos]; en oír [o.'ir] frente a oigo ['oi̯.ɣo], etc. En estos verbos, los segmentos /i/ y /u/, cuando no aparecen acentuados, frecuentemente pueden articularse como parte de un diptongo creciente [ja], [wa] o como hiato [i.a], [u.a]. Dependiendo de las zonas, se prefiere una u otra articulación. La misma alternancia entre hiato y diptongo puede presentarse entre una palabra y las formas de ella derivadas; por ejemplo, país [pa.'is], pero paisano [pai̯.'sa.no] (...)"


    Confieso (con cierta vergüenza) que yo hago tres sílabas en "actuar".
     

    James2000

    Senior Member
    English - South Africa
    Thanks for all the comments. I spent some quality time reading articles on accents in DPD, and feel more informed now.
     

    jose-carlos

    Senior Member
    Spain - Spanish
    I'm afraid I will, once again, not make myself particularly popular with most of my Spanish speaking friends, but here we go again. I wouldn't say like this. I think some of your "expressions" can qualified yourself.

    All Spanish natives have been taught it this way; unfortunately, it's wrong. :eek: ... my God only you get the Truth!!(ironic)
    Unfortunately, the RAE continues to use the terminology in its spelling rules, adding to the confusion. :eek:

    Spanish natives have been taught that, in a combination of a weak vowel and a strong vowel, it is a diphthong unless it carries an accent on the weak vowel. This is wrong. Perhaps in some "speakers" but it is a rule trying to get a GENERAL point of view.

    Spanish natives have also been taught that in the combination of a weak vowel and a strong vowel, it is only a hiato if the weak vowel carries the accent. This is also wrong. E.g. "viaje" is a hiato: "vi-aje", although the accent falls on the strong vowel (Esbozo, 1.4.6b). I don't know how you can think your "Spanish" is better than this from ALL the natives speakers use. "viaje" perhaps is "vi-a-je"(or not) depending on where you hear it. But it is always "viaje" ... if you want I also know "aéreo" - "a-e-reo" we pronounce this like a diptongue, but this is a GENERAL rule.

    Furthermore, there will be many Spanish natives that will claim they pronounce that word as a diphthong for the mere fact that it does not carry an accent. This is the world turned upside down. :eek: I think the same!!! the fact ONE person trying to tell to "the Spanish natives" how to pronounce their words!!!.

    the pronunciation of a certain word as a diphthong or a hiato depends from person to person, from region to region.
    The graphical accent is now only used to indicate where the stress falls on a word when it is pronounced.
    Agree.

    Actuar: actúo; actúo: "úo" is a hiato: true. But so is the "ua" combination in "actuar": "ac-tu-ar"; nevertheless, "actuar" has never carried an accent mark. Same for "continuar". You see, "ua" is a hiato in "actuar".WRONG

    Note:
    1) One exception I know of where the opposition hiato/diphtong gives rise to interpretation:
    pie: 1st person singular of the indefinido of "piar": pronounced as a hiato: "[pi-e]"
    pie: foot: pronounced as a diphtong "[pye]"
    (subjunctive "píe" and indefinido "pié" are hiatos and foot "pie" is diptongo)
    http://www.wordreference.com/es/en/translation.asp?spen=pié

    2)
    Another widespread misunderstanding is that the combination "ui" is a diphthong unless it carries an accent mark (so to say to "break" the diphthong"). This is also not true: "concluido": no accent mark and nevertheless, the "ui" combination is a hiato (Esbozo, 1.4.11f) return where you said "the pronunciation of a certain word as a diphthong or a hiato depends from person to person, from region to region." so don't try to teach me to say "con-clui-do"
     

    Istriano

    Senior Member
    Croatian
    ¡Menudo lío! ¡Diptongos y hiatos!
    En Argentina muchas personas pronuncian -ea como un diptongo [ja]: linea ['linja].
    (Muchos riman linea ['linja] con viña ['binja] :) ).

    No sé como se pronuncia muy: ¿[muj] o [mwi]?
    Ahora se escribe solo guion aunque dudo que la mayoría lo pronuncie así: [gjon] (como un diptongo).
    Ya oí prohibido con diptongo [oj]. :)
     
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    sal62

    Senior Member
    spanish
    En argentina línea se pronuncia cotidiánamente como linia (li-nia: diptongo ia) pero solo como pronunciación, no en lenguaje escrito: ea (no diptongo) ia (diptongo)
    El uso de los acentos porviene de la necesidad dediferenciar en el lenguaje escrito palabras due tienen diferentes significados. Ejemplo
    Término (term) palabra esdrújula
    Termino (I finish) palabra grave
    Terminó (she/he It finished) palabra aguda
    Esta situación se repite en muchos verbos
    Yo amo, él amó
    Yo hablo, él habló
    Yo continúo (con-ti-nú-o, hay que romper el diptongo uo)
    Él contin (con-ti nuó, no hay que romper el diptongo, se acentúa la vocal fuerte o y como es aguda terminada en vocal se debe escribir con tilde)
    El continuo transitar (continuum)( con-ti-nuo no lleva tilde ya que esta la palabra acentuada en ti (con-ti-nuo) y es una palabra grave terminada en vocal)
    Yo nomino
    Él nomina
    Él nominó
    La nómina
    Estas reglas que parecen odiosas, son más prácticas de lo creen, la mayoría de las palabras son graves, y de estas la mayoría terminan en n, s o vocal, si las reglas fueran al revés, estaríamos todo el día poniendo tildes.
     

    macame

    Senior Member
    Spanish & Galician
    The answers given are useful in explaining accentuation rules, but I don't think they answer the question of whether this change is due to the verbs being irregular verbs, and the answer would be of interest to me too.
    Opinions?
    I don't know which verbs are irregular or regular according to this, but I came to the following conclusions:

    All the verbs ending with -uar, apart from some exceptions, form a hiatus (actuar, evaluar, graduar, etc.)
    Verbs ending with -guar, keep the diphthong (menguar, averiguar, amortiguar, etc.)
    Some verbs ending with -cuar, take the two forms: diphthong or hiatus (licuar: licuo/licúo, adecuar: adecuo/adecúo), excepting evacuar (only diphthong: evacuo).

    Verbs with the following endings form diphthong: -biar, -ciar (excepting rociar), -diar, -giar (excepting vigiar), -liar (excepting liar, aliar, paliar, ampliar, desliar), -miar, -niar, -piar (excepting piar, jipiar, pipiar, espiar, expiar), -siar (excepting extasiar), -tiar (excepting hastiar, amnistiar), -quiar (excepting esquiar), -viar (excepting aviar, extraviar, desaviar, ataviar, desataviar, enviar), -xiar.
    Guiar
    , and verbs with the following endings form hiatus: -fiar (excepting pifiar, atrofiar, engarfiar), -riar (excepting escariar, feriar, seriar, escoriar, asalariar, historiar, patriar, expatriar, industriar, injuriar).

    I've only made this list for your help, this is not intended to be a rule or something like that.
     

    Peterdg

    Senior Member
    Dutch - Belgium
    I'm afraid I will, once again, not make myself particularly popular with most of my Spanish speaking friends, but here we go again. I wouldn't say like this. I think some of your "expressions" can qualified yourself.

    All Spanish natives have been taught it this way; unfortunately, it's wrong. :eek: ... my God only you get the Truth!!(ironic)
    Unfortunately, the RAE continues to use the terminology in its spelling rules, adding to the confusion. :eek:

    Spanish natives have been taught that, in a combination of a weak vowel and a strong vowel, it is a diphthong unless it carries an accent on the weak vowel. This is wrong. Perhaps in some "speakers" but it is a rule trying to get a GENERAL point of view.

    Spanish natives have also been taught that in the combination of a weak vowel and a strong vowel, it is only a hiato if the weak vowel carries the accent. This is also wrong. E.g. "viaje" is a hiato: "vi-aje", although the accent falls on the strong vowel (Esbozo, 1.4.6b). I don't know how you can think your "Spanish" is better than this from ALL the natives speakers use. "viaje" perhaps is "vi-a-je"(or not) depending on where you hear it. But it is always "viaje" ... if you want I also know "aéreo" - "a-e-reo" we pronounce this like a diptongue, but this is a GENERAL rule.

    Furthermore, there will be many Spanish natives that will claim they pronounce that word as a diphthong for the mere fact that it does not carry an accent. This is the world turned upside down. :eek: I think the same!!! the fact ONE person trying to tell to "the Spanish natives" how to pronounce their words!!!.


    the pronunciation of a certain word as a diphthong or a hiato depends from person to person, from region to region.
    The graphical accent is now only used to indicate where the stress falls on a word when it is pronounced.



    Agree.

    Actuar: actúo; actúo: "úo" is a hiato: true. But so is the "ua" combination in "actuar": "ac-tu-ar"; nevertheless, "actuar" has never carried an accent mark. Same for "continuar". You see, "ua" is a hiato in "actuar".WRONG

    Note:
    1) One exception I know of where the opposition hiato/diphtong gives rise to interpretation:
    pie: 1st person singular of the indefinido of "piar": pronounced as a hiato: "[pi-e]"
    pie: foot: pronounced as a diphtong "[pye]"
    (subjunctive "píe" and indefinido "pié" are hiatos and foot "pie" is diptongo)
    http://www.wordreference.com/es/en/t....asp?spen=pié

    2)
    Another widespread misunderstanding is that the combination "ui" is a diphthong unless it carries an accent mark (so to say to "break" the diphthong"). This is also not true: "concluido": no accent mark and nevertheless, the "ui" combination is a hiato (Esbozo, 1.4.11f) return where you said "the pronunciation of a certain word as a diphthong or a hiato depends from person to person, from region to region." so don't try to teach me to say "con-clui-do"
    Estimado jose-carlos,

    No era mi intención de ofender a nadie. La única intención era de demostrar que el criterio de poner una tilde para "romper el diptongo" ya no vale.

    Si digo que algo es un hiato, sólo repito lo que dice (o decía) la RAE. Por eso pongo las referencias, para que cualquiera pueda comprobar lo que digo.

    Si digo que "ua" en "actuar" es un hiato, es porque lo dice la RAE; mira mi post #11. Si tú dices que es "WRONG", me gustaría que me dieras una referencia, como lo hago yo.

    En cuanto a la palabra "pie": ahora se escribe sin tilde en las dos acepciones; que sea la extremidad de la pierna o el pretérito indefinido de "piar", se escribe sin tilde (compruébalo en el conjugador de la RAE). En una de sus acepciones es diptongo; en otra, hiato pero en ningún caso hay tilde para "romper el diptongo". En "píe", primera persona singular del subjuntivo presente de "piar", hay una tilde porque el acento prosódico recae en la "i", no para "romper el diptongo".

    Para terminar: no quiero convencer a nadie que diga "con-clui-do"; si lees lo que he escrito, te darás cuenta de que digo que es "con-clu-i-do"; la combinación "ui" en esta palabra es un hiato (sin embargo, no hay ninguna tilde para "romper el diptongo").
     
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    Pinairun

    Senior Member
    En cuanto a la palabra "pie": ahora se escribe sin tilde en todas sus acepciones; que sea la extremidad de la pierna, el subjuntivo presente de "piar" o el pretérito indefinido de "piar", se escribe sin tilde (compruébalo en el conjugador de la RAE). En algunas de sus acepciones es diptongo; en otras, hiato pero en ningún caso hay tilde para "romper el diptongo".
    Solo se elimina la tilde del pretérito perfecto simple.
    Presente​
    píe
    píes
    píe

    piemos
    pieis / píen
    píen

    Pretérito perfecto simple o Pretérito​
    pie
    piaste
    pio
    piamos
    piasteis / piaron
    piaron​
     

    Peterdg

    Senior Member
    Dutch - Belgium
    Solo se elimina la tilde del pretérito perfecto simple.
    Presente​
    píe
    píes
    píe

    piemos
    pieis / píen
    píen

    Pretérito perfecto simple o Pretérito​
    pie
    piaste
    pio
    piamos
    piasteis / piaron
    piaron​
    Me di cuenta de eso y ya lo he corregido en mi post:eek:
     

    duvija

    Senior Member
    Spanish - Uruguay
    Me fascina lo equivocado que puede estar alguien (como jose-carlos). Dale, buscá algunos de los 30.000 hilos que hay sobre el tema (y sin conocer a Peterdg, no lo acuses de no saber español). Y hacele caso a Agró. Y mejor me callo o te enchufo un espectrograma grande así para ver diptongo vs hiato.:D
     

    jose-carlos

    Senior Member
    Spain - Spanish
    Me fascina lo equivocado que puede estar alguien (como jose-carlos). Dale, buscá algunos de los 30.000 hilos que hay sobre el tema (y sin conocer a Peterdg, no lo acuses de no saber español). Y hacele caso a Agró. Y mejor me callo o te enchufo un espectrograma grande así para ver diptongo vs hiato.:D
    No lo acuso de no saber español. Lo acuso :p (si se puede llamar así) por usar expresiones como "All Spanish natives have been taught it this way; unfortunately, it's wrong"...a mi modo de ver, es como decir "Todos los sistemas educativos de todos los paises hispanohablantes, se equivocan sobre como enseñar su idioma"... Sólo que creo que es una opinión "un poco" "arriesgada"...
     

    alanla

    Senior Member
    Presente
    (yo) continúo
    (tú) continúas
    (él) continúa
    (nosotros) continuamos
    (vosotros) continuáis
    (ellos) continúan


    Presente
    (yo) envío
    (tú) envías
    (él) envía
    (nosotros) enviamos
    (vosotros) enviáis
    (ellos) envían


    I think the easiest way for us gringos to remember this is this rule:

    Verbs ending in –uar [continuar, etc] put an accent on the “u” in the yo/tu/el/and ellos forms in the present tense form. All other tenses are conjugated as usual. [continúa vs. continua, etc.]

    Verbs ending in –iar [enviar, etc.] put an accent on the “i” in the yo/tu/el/and ellos forms in the present tense form. All other tenses are conjugated as usual. [envía vs. envia, etc.]

    Note: The two vowels together tend to be pronounced more like one sound à a slightly different sound, and the two vowels need to each be given their full, separate pronunciation.
    It is called an orthographic change.



     
    Last edited:

    macame

    Senior Member
    Spanish & Galician
    I think the easiest way for us gringos to remember this is this rule:

    Verbs ending in –uar [continuar, etc] put an accent on the “u” in the yo/tu/el/and ellos forms in the present tense form. All other tenses are conjugated as usual. [continúa vs. continua, etc.]

    Verbs ending in –iar [enviar, etc.] put an accent on the “i” in the yo/tu/el/and ellos forms in the present tense form. All other tenses are conjugated as usual. [envía vs. envia, etc.]




    Not always. There are a lot of exceptions as I said in a previous post.
     
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