all over mud vs mud all over

High on grammar

Senior Member
Farsi
Hello everyone:

Is (a) and (b) similar in meaning?

a.) The floor is mud all over.

b.) There is mud all over the floor.

Can (a.) be used in reference to a floor entirely made of mud?

Thanks
 
  • lingobingo

    Senior Member
    English - England
    a) is not idiomatic. And is there even such a thing as a floor “made of” mud? Mud serving as a floor is perhaps not quite the same thing.

    b) suggests that the mud on the floor is accidental, or at least unwanted.
     

    Hildy1

    Senior Member
    English - US and Canada
    B sounds more natural if you mean that there is mud everywhere on the floor.

    Strictly speaking, A does mean that the floor is entirely made of mud.
    If you want it to mean the same as B, you could say:
    The floor is muddy all over.

    Cross-posted.
     

    Jim in Phila

    Senior Member
    American English
    B.) is correct.

    A.) not very idiomatic. Has would be better as a verb (you could add over it.) (You could also say, "The floor is made of mud.")
     
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