Split from here.
Could you please give an example of this? I'm really curious how something like this would work in a Slavic language.
No, as Cyanista explains:Jana, I've given your example some thought, and remembered that, in a sense, English also has two infinitives. For example, there is:
to write (--> plain, or imperfect infinitive)
to have written --> which can be described as a perfect infinitive
Is this like what you have in the Slavic languages?
However, (at least in colloquial Czech) we can form a literal translation of "to have written" and we use it exactly like the English present perfect. It only works for perfective verbs.No, not exactly. Slavic languages (I'm not sure if all of them) have perfective and imperfective verbs. Most verbs form perfective-imperfective pairs. The verbs in those are distinctly independent lexical entities. There is no set method how to form a perfective verb from an imperfective one or vice versa.
Could you please give an example of this? I'm really curious how something like this would work in a Slavic language.