• That is the one I've heard from Arabs most often, but in WRITTEN Arabic I always see mal2ak and malak. Why is this? By the way, I think the latter word might be avoided by Arabs in writing as it can be confused with "malik" (king).
    What is mal2ak? Can't you type it in Arabic?
    If you're talking about ملائكة it's the plural form. If not, please try to be more clear.

    In Qur’anic orthography مَلْـٴَـكٌ malʼakun.

    malakun is also considered correct. malākun is certainly not correct, at least not in classical Arabic.
    In Qur’anic orthography مَلْـٴَـكٌ malʼakun.
    Actually, there’s no همزة in it in the Quran.

    فَلَمَّا سَمِعَتْ بِمَكْرِهِنَّ أَرْسَلَتْ إِلَيْهِنَّ وَأَعْتَدَتْ لَهُنَّ مُتَّكَأً وَآتَتْ كُلَّ وَاحِدَةٍ مِّنْهُنَّ سِكِّينًا وَقَالَتِ اخْرُجْ عَلَيْهِنَّ ۖ فَلَمَّا رَأَيْنَهُ أَكْبَرْنَهُ وَقَطَّعْنَ أَيْدِيَهُنَّ وَقُلْنَ حَاشَ لِلَّهِ مَا هَٰذَا بَشَرًا إِنْ هَٰذَا إِلَّا مَلَكٌ كَرِيمٌ (31)
    How could you be sure of that? It’s listed in dictionaries, including classical ones like لسان العرب, so why are you so sure it’s incorrect in CA?

    Is it? I couldn't find it in the Lisaan. It says ملَك comes from ملأك though, and I can see how ملأك can also turn into ملاك in the vernaculars.
    That’s what I assumed. However, I highly doubt that modern vernacular came from ملأك directly, there must have been at least one Classical dialect that the modern vernacular took it from, or am I missing something?
    If you mean there were FaSiiH dialects that did not use a hamza (and so had ملاك already) then yes I agree that’s probably the case.
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    Not a single dictionary of Classical Arabic has مَلاك. They only have مَلَك and مَلْأَك. Maybe مَلاك is specific to dialects or some other variety of Arabic?
    I believe that at least theoretically, مَلاك could have existed in classical Arabic, for there is a rule of الصرف (morphology) that states that a همزة can turn into an ألف when preceded by a فتحة. Thus, we have يَسَلُ for يَسْأَلُ “he asks”.