Any difference? 【seem to make people believe】 vs 【make people seem to believe】

Shimmer Dancer

Senior Member
Chinese
But because some of the church of England divines would seem to make their people believe, that the Maccabees were not received as canonical Scripture in Gregory the Great's time, consequently not before;
But because some of the church of England divines would to make their people seem to believe, that the Maccabees were not received as canonical Scripture in Gregory the Great's time, consequently not before;

Hi, everyone

Recently I am discussing a problem with a friend.
We are arguing :

1)If placing "seem" in differently places in sentences like the ones above would make any difference.

2)If there is any, is it a great one that could possibly change the meaning in a major way?

Thanks in advance!
 
Last edited:
  • perpend

    Banned
    American English
    Hmmm ... interesting question.

    The first version sounds definitely better, but somehow I want to use "have" instead of "make".

    ... divines would seem to have their people believe that ... (no comma before "that", for me).

    Your second version appears incorrect to me.
     

    Shimmer Dancer

    Senior Member
    Chinese
    Hmmm ... interesting question.

    The first version sounds definitely better, but somehow I want to use "have" instead of "make".

    ... divines would seem to have their people believe that ... (no comma before "that", for me).

    Your second version appears incorrect to me.
    Hi, Perpend
    Thank you for your reply. I understand now the second sentence is not right.

    The first sentence just means people totally believe it.

    However, what if I want to emphasize that the "people seem to believe", that do not believe completely, their views are a bit ambiguous, how can we put it in a grammatically correct way?
     

    perpend

    Banned
    American English
    I'm a little confused, but, maybe you mean: ... the divines want their people to seem to believe that ...

    :confused: Hopefully someone else might understand this context a bit better.

    EDIT: Cross-posted with RM1. I think I was missing something.
     

    RM1(SS)

    Senior Member
    English - US (Midwest)
    We are arguing :

    1)If placing "seem" in differently places in sentences like the ones above would make any difference.

    2)If there is any, is it a great one that could possibly change the meaning in a major way?
    1) Yes
    2) Yes

    But because some of the church of England divines would seem to make their people believe, - They appear to make their people believe, but we don't know for sure if they really do make the people believe.
    But because some of the church of England divines would to make their people seem to believe, - The people appear to believe, but we don't know for sure if they really do believe.
     

    Shimmer Dancer

    Senior Member
    Chinese
    But because some of the church of England divines would to make their people seem to believe, - The people appear to believe, but we don't know for sure if they really do believe.
    Thank you RM1(SS).
    I want to know if the above sentence is revised so, is it odd to a native despite the fact it is grammatically correct?
     

    Shimmer Dancer

    Senior Member
    Chinese
    Neither of your examples is a full sentence, and neither actually makes sense.
    I did not excerpt the whole sentence because it's pretty long and I think the meaning group can be divided here. I'll try find complete sentences next time.:)
     

    perpend

    Banned
    American English
    Now that RM1 took the "to" out, the revised part of the sentence makes sense to me.

    "would make" in this usage is not very common, but it might fit the style of your text.
     
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