as I love my parents

azz

Senior Member
armenian
a. If you loved anyone as I love my parents, you would understand people like me.
b. If you loved anyone, as I love my parents, you would understand people like me.



Does the comma in (b) change the meaning? Is it correct at all?

I am not sure it works. If it does then the meaning of (b) is different to (a). The first sentence means 'you don't love anyone the way I love my parents. That is why you don't understand me.'' but the meaning of (b) would be 'You don't love anyone. I love my parents. That is why you don't understand me.'

Many Thanks.
 
  • shorty1

    Senior Member
    Korean
    I agree with you, azz.

    I think the 'comma' is used to get rid of the ambiguity of interpretation.

    Similar to that:

    I can't play the piano, like you. = Unlike you, I can't play the piano.

    I can't play the piano like you. = I can't play the piano in the way you played the piano. (I don't have the skills you showed me.)


    Just my opinion.


    Let's wait for other opinions.
     

    azz

    Senior Member
    armenian
    Thank you Shorty1.

    We are more or less in agreement! I seem to have stronger doubts about our interpretation than you!

    Let's see what the others have to say.

    Azz.
     
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