<As> it was in Athens in the time of Solon, the wealthy feared revolt by those who were miserable.

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park sang joon

Senior Member
Korean
As it was in Athens in the time of Solon, the wealthy feared revolt by those who were miserable.
[Source: Privilege, Poverty and Failed Revolutions http://www.fsmitha.com/h1/hell17.htm]

I think "as" indicates the latter clause, and that it is a complement of "was."
I'd like to know if my thought is right.
Thank you in advance for your help.
 
  • velisarius

    Senior Member
    British English (Sussex)
    "It was" is redundant there. "As in Athens in the time of Solon..."

    "As" in Athens - the situation in Athens at the time of Solon was a similar one.
    Which clause do you mean when you say "the latter clause"?
     

    park sang joon

    Senior Member
    Korean
    Thank you, velisarius, for your another kind answer. :)
    I was wadering if we can't think "it" indicates a situation.
    I meant the whole clause "the wealthy feared revolt by those who were miserable."
     

    velisarius

    Senior Member
    British English (Sussex)
    Like I said, I think "it was" is out of place in the sentence.
    I would see "it" as meaning "the situation", and we find out about that situation here: "the wealthy feared revolt by those who were miserable".
    "as it was in Athens" = similarly to the situation that pertained in Athens.
     
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