Greetings,
This is a thread that has spilled over from the Slavonic languages forum:
http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?p=9852727#post9852727
I am told that Austrian /b d g/ always are unvoiced and not aspirated, and are therefore identical to /p t k/.
But doesn't this make for ambiguity? E.g. wouldn't ‘Kaiser’ and ‘Geiser’ be pronounced the same?
All the best, and many thanks,
Simon
This is a thread that has spilled over from the Slavonic languages forum:
http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?p=9852727#post9852727
I am told that Austrian /b d g/ always are unvoiced and not aspirated, and are therefore identical to /p t k/.
But doesn't this make for ambiguity? E.g. wouldn't ‘Kaiser’ and ‘Geiser’ be pronounced the same?
All the best, and many thanks,
Simon