be subject to our being satisfied

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gohby

Member
English, Chinese
I've come across the following sentences in a letter:

(a) Any approval which is given is subject to our being satisfied that we will not be subjected to any adverse tax consequences.

(b) Any approval which is given is subject to your reimbursing us on demand all expenses incurred.

Could anyone elucidate if the aforesaid sentences are grammatically sound? It sounds odd to me that the possessive case was used for both instances. I would have said for (a), "to us being satisfied [...]", and for (b) "to you reimbursing us on demand [...]".

Any grammatical explanations on this matter will be much appreciated - thanks!
 
  • Barque

    Senior Member
    Tamil
    The use of "our" and "your" are fine, and, I'd say, better than using "us" and "you". I think the reason is that "being satisfied" and "reimbursing us" are used like nouns/noun phrases, but someone else should be able to give you a better explanation.

    (In the second sentence, I believe you need "for" before "all expenses". Some might be fine with it as it is.)
     
    Last edited:

    gohby

    Member
    English, Chinese
    Thank you, Barque.

    I was trying to figure out any grammatical underpinnings of why the words in bold were used. Would anyone be able to elucidate on this?

    Concerning the second sentence, I am of the opinion that "for" before "all expenses" is unnecessary. Happy to hear any dissenting views from other posters.
     

    SevenDays

    Senior Member
    Spanish
    I've come across the following sentences in a letter:

    (a) Any approval which is given is subject to our being satisfied that we will not be subjected to any adverse tax consequences.

    (b) Any approval which is given is subject to your reimbursing us on demand all expenses incurred.

    Could anyone elucidate if the aforesaid sentences are grammatically sound? It sounds odd to me that the possessive case was used for both instances. I would have said for (a), "to us being satisfied [...]", and for (b) "to you reimbursing us on demand [...]".

    Any grammatical explanations on this matter will be much appreciated - thanks!
    The subject of non-finite verbs ("being" and "reimbursing") may be accusative (us being, you reimbursing) or possessive (our being, your reimbursing). You can go either way; syntax is neutral on it. Some may base the choice on formality (the possessive is seen as formal; the accusative, as informal) or on semantics (the possessive puts more of a focus on the verb action, while the accusative puts the focus more on the person involved). But formality/semantics isn't syntax; again, syntax is neutral. What matters is that a subject pronoun isn't used, because subject pronouns are paired with finite verbs. In other words, don't say "...subject to we being satisfied."
     
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