Because William had substantial holdings in France...

Melian of Beleriand

Senior Member
French - Canada
Good morning,

William had substantial holdings in France in vassalage to the French king, the affairs of England and France would become intertwined.

How would you translate this sentence in French, or at least what does this sentence mean?

Thanks,
Melian
 
  • silaya

    Senior Member
    French
    I'd say:

    William avait de nombreuses possessions/propriétés/terres/exploitations en France en tant que vassal du roi de France

    It depends of the context:
    - propriétés: when there is a house or a castel etc...
    - terres: means "land"
    - explotations: if there are crops/farming
     

    Keith Bradford

    Senior Member
    English (Midlands UK)
    William owned a great deal of land in France as a lord, subject to the authority of the French king.

    Mediaeval society depended on the vassalage system, where each level depended on and owed allegiance to the one above. There's probably a wiki item on this.
     
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