jasio
Senior Member
polski
I've been learning Bulgarian for a couple of months now, and I've just encountered a phenomenon which blew my mind: using the perfective verbs in the present tense. Let's take an example:
To give you a background: I understand the difference between the perfective and imperfective verbs quite well; my mothertongue is Polish, I used to learn Russian at school, and I have a grasp of Ukrainian and Slovak. However in all these languages it's grammatically impossible to have the perfective verbs in the present tense, and if the present tense form is applied to the perfective verb, the result is a verb in the future tense instead ('piszę' = 'I write/I'm writing', 'napiszę' = 'I will write'). Some scholars even prefer to use the name 'non-past tense' to include both the present tense (of imperfective verbs) and the future tense (of perfective verbs) together, because structurally they are all the same, and the difference is only in meaning. There's even a theory behind it, which states that at the present moment the action is either already completed (ie. it was performed in the past) or will be completed in future, so the present tense of a perfective verb simply does not make sense.
Apparently, in Bulgarian it works differently, and if I get it right, the future tense is created analytically anyway, using 'ще' particle in both cases.
So what is going on here?
Thank you very much for your responses.
- Аз купувам колело. (impf)
- Аз купя колело. (pf)
To give you a background: I understand the difference between the perfective and imperfective verbs quite well; my mothertongue is Polish, I used to learn Russian at school, and I have a grasp of Ukrainian and Slovak. However in all these languages it's grammatically impossible to have the perfective verbs in the present tense, and if the present tense form is applied to the perfective verb, the result is a verb in the future tense instead ('piszę' = 'I write/I'm writing', 'napiszę' = 'I will write'). Some scholars even prefer to use the name 'non-past tense' to include both the present tense (of imperfective verbs) and the future tense (of perfective verbs) together, because structurally they are all the same, and the difference is only in meaning. There's even a theory behind it, which states that at the present moment the action is either already completed (ie. it was performed in the past) or will be completed in future, so the present tense of a perfective verb simply does not make sense.
Apparently, in Bulgarian it works differently, and if I get it right, the future tense is created analytically anyway, using 'ще' particle in both cases.
So what is going on here?
Thank you very much for your responses.