But the chronological appearance of the senses here does not accord with their original development;

dcx97

Banned
Hindi - India
Hello!

I was going through the Oxford English Dictionary's entry for "intend" and came across the following in the etymology section:

The extensive and complex development of senses in L. and OF. is reflected also in English. But the chronological appearance of the senses here does not accord with their original development; those first taken over from French in 13–14th c. being figurative uses, far removed from the literal sense, which was only adopted directly from L. about or after 1600.

Shouldn't there have been a comma instead of a semicolon between "development" and "those"?

Thanks!
 

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  • dcx97

    Banned
    Hindi - India
    I think the semicolon is helpful to indicate the divide between the main clause and the absolute phrase, because the absolute phrase is quite complex, containing two commas.
    Yes, I guess a comma would have only added to the confusion. I can see why they chose a semicolon instead. Under ordinary circumstances, though, it would not have made any sense.
     
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