by any means/in no way

Gabriel Malheiros

Senior Member
Portuguese - Brazil
Hi, there

I have a question about "by any means" and "in no way".

In the following sentence, which one is better?

About Dilma's(Brazilian president) impeachment:

"By any means Dilma's suspension means a end to corruption in Brazil"

or

"In no way does Dilma's suspension mean a end to corruption in Brazil"

Thank you
 
  • Barque

    Senior Member
    Tamil
    The first sentence doesn't sound very natural. But I'd understand it as meaning the opposite of the second sentence.

    The second sentence is fine (grammatically at least) if you change "a end" to "an end" (and put a full stop at the end).

    What is it that you want to say?
     

    Gabriel Malheiros

    Senior Member
    Portuguese - Brazil
    The first sentence doesn't sound very natural. But I'd understand it as meaning the opposite of the second sentence.

    The second sentence is fine (grammatically at least) if you change "a end" to "an end" (and put a full stop at the end).

    What is it that you want to say?
    I meant the fact that Dilma was suspended from office in no way means that corruption will end in Brazil. What's wrong with "in no way" or that sentence?
     

    Barque

    Senior Member
    Tamil
    What's wrong with "in no way" or that sentence?
    Nothing wrong with it - it reflects what you want to say. I said the first sentence doesn't sound natural - the one using "By any means".

    You could also say "By no means does Dilma Rousseff's suspension mean an end to corruption in Brazil."
     

    Gabriel Malheiros

    Senior Member
    Portuguese - Brazil
    Nothing wrong with it - it reflects what you want to say. I said the first sentence doesn't sound natural - the one using "By any means".

    You could also say "By no means does Dilma Rousseff's suspension mean an end to corruption in Brazil."
    What if I said "Dilma Rousseff's suspension in no way means the end to corruption in Brazil"? Is that wrong?

    And Barque, when I said "In no way does Dilma's suspension mean an end to corruption in Brazil", you said "This sentence is fine (gramatically at least)... What is it that you want to say?"... Is that sentence gramatically correct but it sounds odd?
     

    Barque

    Senior Member
    Tamil
    What if I said "Dilma Rousseff's suspension in no way means the end to corruption in Brazil"? Is that wrong?
    I'd use "of" instead of "to" but otherwise I think that's fine.

    you said "This sentence is fine (gramatically at least)... What is it that you want to say?"... Is that sentence gramatically correct but it sounds odd?
    I meant I was only commenting on the grammatical aspect and not on whether it was factually correct, because I don't know if it is.
     
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