causative "have"

Akasaka

Senior Member
Japanese
Hello everyone,
I am wondering whether I can use -ing form here.

The actor used to have the tailor making his suits.

I understand "make" also is perfectly correct. If both are, what is the difference?

I appreciate your help.
 
  • KenInPDX

    Senior Member
    US English
    Making is not correct here.

    It is simply "The actor used to have the tailor make his suits".

    In constructions of the form "Person used to have person (verb)...", the verb is in the infinitive.
     

    Akasaka

    Senior Member
    Japanese
    Making is not correct here.

    It is simply "The actor used to have the tailor make his suits".

    In constructions of the form "Person used to have person (verb)...", the verb is in the infinitive.
    Thank you, KenInPDX.

    I sometimes find sentences in which "-ing form" is used. Here's one of them.
    George had us all laughing.
    If this is correct, how about "laugh"?
    George had us all laugh.

    What is the difference?
     

    xqby

    Senior Member
    English (U.S.)
    The first refers to an action over a time period and the second to a discrete occurrence.
    When I read the two I imagine George telling a joke and causing the group to laugh for the first example,
    and commanding them to laugh (quite possibly just once) in the second.
     

    Akasaka

    Senior Member
    Japanese
    and commanding them to laugh (quite possibly just once) in the second.
    Hello xqby,
    If "George had us all laugh." means that he had them laugh just onece,
    "The actor used to have the tailor make his suits". should mean the actor had the tailor make his suits just once, shouldn't it?
     

    xqby

    Senior Member
    English (U.S.)
    It definitely could if we were to say "The actor had the tailor makes his suits," sure. "Used to have" implies a time period to me, so not really in the original sentence.

    "Quite possibly" means that it's not necessarily so, though. George could equally have had them laugh many, many times. It's ambiguous as far as I can tell.
     

    JamesM

    Senior Member
    Hello everyone,
    I am wondering whether I can use -ing form here.

    The actor used to have the tailor making his suits.

    I understand "make" also is perfectly correct. If both are, what is the difference?

    I appreciate your help.
    The actor used to have the tailor make his suits. (He had the suits made by the tailor in the past.)

    The actor is used to having the tailor make his suits. (He is accustomed to getting the tailor to make his suits.)

    The actor had the tailor make his suits. (He had his suits made by the tailor. It could be in the past or the present. That is, we may be talking about the past or the present; the suits were made before this conversation in all cases.)

    The actor had the tailor making his suits. (He had his suits made by the tailor over a period of time in the past (in a specific context.))

    This last one would be in a certain setting, such as:

    "Now we know why we were over budget. All this time the actor had the tailor making his suits instead of using the rented costumes."

    "All the townspeople were dead set against having the film cast and crew in their town for the season, but the leading man won them over easily. Within a week, the actor had the tailor making his suits and the butcher saving the finest cuts of meat for him."


    I can't see any possible way to have "used to have the tailor making his suits" work in a sentence.
     
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