Comemos fruta para postre

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I have encountered this sentence in my Grammar book.

Comemos _ fruta para postre.

Why there is no article?
The rule says:
1) we don't use el/la article after tener (e.g. Para postre tenemos fruta y helado)
2) when the noun is an object in the sentence the article is frequently not used (e.g. Escucho musica. Quiero vino. Juan es medico) BUT: none of these sentences is similar to mine above. Or should I regard this 2) rule as an appropriate rule for my sentence?
  • Luis López Caraballo

    New Member
    I am a native Spanish speaker and l can't imagine myself saying that often unless l were in a hurry with another native speaker. I would say: comemos fruta para el postre? And if I tried to send a direct message I'd say : para el postre tenemos fruta (only fruit, nothing else). In some parts of Mexico we tend to be very indirect is part of our culture. I hope this helps.


    Senior Member
    Castellano de Castilla
    Why there is no article?
    Because fruta is used as a generic (collective) noun. It's like English we eat fruit versus we eat a/the fruit. By the way, in this context, in my area, de postre is (usually) said instead of para postre.
    Last edited:
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