contracted 'have got': my parents've got

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wolfbm1

Senior Member
Polish
Hello.

1. My parents've got a washing machine but they haven't got a dishwasher.
2. My parents have got a washing machine but they haven't got a dishwasher.

In colloquial British English "have got" is usually contracted. Does sentence 2 sound colloquial?

Thank you.
 
  • PaulQ

    Senior Member
    UK
    English - England
    In BE, informally, I would say, "My parents've got a washing machine but they haven't got not a dishwasher."
    My parents have got a washing machine but they haven't got not a dishwasher."

    As far as contracting "have got" is concerned, "got" is always informal. 1 and 2 are both colloquial and fine.
     

    wolfbm1

    Senior Member
    Polish
    How about the Smiths or the Adamsons.
    The Smiths've got a washing machine but not a dishwasher.
    The Adamsons've got a washing machine but not a dishwasher.

    Aren't the contractions in those sentences hard to pronounce?
     

    wolfbm1

    Senior Member
    Polish
    George Sliwa, born in Birmingham, England in his book Angielski bez błędów (English without errors) gave the following example:
    "I've got a lot of work to do today." (NEVER: "I have got a lot of work to do today.)"
    Could it be true only in cases when "have got" or 'has got" follows personal pronouns?
     
    Last edited:

    Loob

    Senior Member
    English UK
    I only write 've got when there's a difference in sound between the contracted and uncontracted pronunciation.

    I write I've got and they've got. :thumbsup:

    But I don't write
    My parents've got:thumbsdown:
    The Smiths've got :thumbsdown:
    The Adamsons've got:thumbsdown:
     

    wolfbm1

    Senior Member
    Polish
    I only write 've got when there's a difference in sound between the contracted and uncontracted pronunciation.

    I write I've got and they've got. :thumbsup:

    But I don't write
    My parents've got:thumbsdown:
    The Smiths've got :thumbsdown:
    The Adamsons've got:thumbsdown:
    Thank you, Loob. Very interesting.

    I did some research on forming contractions.
    Turton and Heaton in Dictionary of Common Errors, on page 158, say:
    << ? He has got white hair, big ears and blue eyes.
    OK He's got white hair, big ears and blue eyes.
    The different forms of have got are nearly always contracted when they are spoken or written: 'I've got two sisters.' 'She's got big brown eyes.' 'He wanted to know if I'd got any money.' >>
    Michael Swan in Practical English Usage, chapter 143 contractions, says: "Contractions are formed with auxiliary verbs, and also with be and sometimes have when these are not auxiliary verbs. The short form 's (= is/has) can be written after nouns (including proper nouns), question words, here and now as well as pronouns and unstressed there. [...] Contractions are not usually written with double subjects."
    I guess he would not like this sentence: Dasha and I've got a chance. (My example)
    But in New Total English Elementary Workbook the following sentences are marked as OK:
    1a. Serena and Harry've got two children.
    1b. Serena and Harry have got two children.

    But PaulQ said that no matter how you write this kind of sentence, whether it is Serena and Harry've got or Serena and Harry have got, it is colloquial anyway.
    Yet in the same workbook we read "The house has got four bedrooms" and not "The house's got four bedrooms."
     
    Last edited:

    natkretep

    Moderato con anima (English Only)
    English (Singapore/UK), basic Chinese
    I think I've been conditioned to write 've only after a pronoun. I wouldn't write Serena and Harry've got two children. But when I say out 'Serena and Harry have got two children' naturally, the have would be pronounced /əv/ still; it's the weak form.

    I don't seem to have the same restriction with 's. I can write He's got two children and Harry's got two children.
     

    entangledbank

    Senior Member
    English - South-East England
    Yes, we need to distinguish the pronunciation from the conventional spellings. We almost invariably say 'have' in this position as reduced /həv/ or /əv/, after common or proper nouns. By convention, we continue to write it as 'have'.

    It is different after pronouns, as it is reduced to non-syllabic /v/ here. I've is one syllable, Sky've = Sky have is two (Sky've got a good programme on tonight). So there's a good reason for treating reduced 'have' as not the same as the true contraction I've.
     
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