Red Arrow
Senior Member
Nederlands (België)
In Danish, many short vowels are pronounced more open than what you would expect from their spelling. This is also true for long vowels before or after the letter R. The result is that Danish children have to learn the spelling of every short vowel sound. They hear [e̝] and don't know whether to write e or i. Danish has 15 short vowels and 7 of them have multiple spellings.
To give you an overview:
i [i: i], in some words more open: [e̝]
e [e̝: e̝], in some words more open: [ɛ̝], sometimes even more open: [a̝] (only next to R), unstressed: [ə], unstressed er: [ɐ]
æ [ɛ̝: ɛ̝], sometimes more open: [a̝] (only next to R)
a [a̝: a̝ ɑ]
y [y: y], in some words more open: [ø], sometimes even more open: [œ] (only after R)
ø [ø: ø œ: œ], sometimes even more open: [ɶ] (only next to R)
u [u: u], in some words more open: [ɔ]
o [o: o], in some words more open: [ɔ], in some words even more open: [ʌ]
å [ɔ: ʌ]
But my question is: how did this arise? For example, why did the short i in "mist" become more open whereas the short i in "mis" remained the same? I can give you hundreds of examples like this. Are there any rules or tendencies at all? Not even English sound changes are this bizarre. The Great Vowel Shift affected nearly all words in English, not half of them.
I am not a linguist, so I would love to hear what you think. How can sound changes affect only half of the words? The only thing I can think of is that this sound change affected all words and Danish then magically gained lots and lots of new vocabulary, but its lexical similarity with the more regular Swedish contradicts that theory.
To give you an overview:
i [i: i], in some words more open: [e̝]
e [e̝: e̝], in some words more open: [ɛ̝], sometimes even more open: [a̝] (only next to R), unstressed: [ə], unstressed er: [ɐ]
æ [ɛ̝: ɛ̝], sometimes more open: [a̝] (only next to R)
a [a̝: a̝ ɑ]
y [y: y], in some words more open: [ø], sometimes even more open: [œ] (only after R)
ø [ø: ø œ: œ], sometimes even more open: [ɶ] (only next to R)
u [u: u], in some words more open: [ɔ]
o [o: o], in some words more open: [ɔ], in some words even more open: [ʌ]
å [ɔ: ʌ]
But my question is: how did this arise? For example, why did the short i in "mist" become more open whereas the short i in "mis" remained the same? I can give you hundreds of examples like this. Are there any rules or tendencies at all? Not even English sound changes are this bizarre. The Great Vowel Shift affected nearly all words in English, not half of them.
I am not a linguist, so I would love to hear what you think. How can sound changes affect only half of the words? The only thing I can think of is that this sound change affected all words and Danish then magically gained lots and lots of new vocabulary, but its lexical similarity with the more regular Swedish contradicts that theory.
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